Nursing Elites

1. A patient with schizophrenia is experiencing hallucinations. Which intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Encourage the patient to ignore the voices.
• B. Engage the patient in a reality-based activity.
• C. Provide a quiet environment to reduce stimulation.
• D. Ask the patient to describe the hallucinations in detail.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Engaging the patient in a reality-based activity is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with schizophrenia experiencing hallucinations. This intervention can help distract the patient from the hallucinations and reorient them to the present, promoting a connection with reality and potentially reducing distress associated with the hallucinations. Choice A, encouraging the patient to ignore the voices, may not be effective as it can be challenging for the patient to dismiss the hallucinations. Choice C, providing a quiet environment, is helpful but may not directly address the hallucinations. Choice D, asking the patient to describe the hallucinations in detail, may increase the patient's focus on the hallucinations, potentially worsening distress.

2. A client has been prescribed escitalopram (Lexapro) for depression. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime to prevent daytime drowsiness.
• B. Avoid consuming alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication with food to prevent stomach upset.
• D. Discontinue the medication if you start feeling better.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching is to advise the client to avoid consuming alcohol while taking escitalopram (Lexapro). Alcohol can potentiate side effects such as drowsiness and dizziness when combined with this medication. Choice A is incorrect because escitalopram is usually taken in the morning due to its potential to cause insomnia if taken at bedtime. Choice C is incorrect because taking the medication with or without food does not significantly affect its absorption or side effects. Choice D is incorrect because it is essential for the client to continue taking the medication even if they start feeling better, as abruptly stopping an antidepressant can lead to withdrawal symptoms and a relapse of depression.

3. Which client action is an example of the defense mechanism of reaction formation?

• A. A woman who feels unattractive constantly praises the looks of others.
• B. A man who feels insecure about his masculinity exaggerates his strength.
• C. A person who feels guilty about cheating accuses others of being unfaithful.
• D. A child who feels neglected tries to win approval from teachers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The defense mechanism of reaction formation involves expressing the opposite of one's true feelings. In this case, the woman who feels unattractive praises the looks of others as a way to mask her own feelings of inadequacy. This behavior represents a form of overcompensation where the individual showcases an exaggerated opposite trait to conceal their true emotions. Choices B, C, and D do not align with reaction formation. Choice B describes compensation, where one overemphasizes a trait to make up for a perceived weakness. Choice C illustrates projection, where one attributes their feelings onto others. Choice D demonstrates a form of seeking attention or approval, which does not fit reaction formation.

4. In the treatment of a patient with bipolar disorder experiencing a depressive episode, which medication is commonly prescribed?

• A. Valproic acid
• B. Risperidone
• C. Fluoxetine
• D. Lithium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Fluoxetine. Fluoxetine, a commonly prescribed antidepressant, is used to manage depressive episodes in bipolar disorder. It helps alleviate symptoms of depression by increasing the levels of serotonin in the brain, which can improve mood and reduce feelings of sadness and hopelessness. While mood stabilizers like lithium are often used in bipolar disorder, for depressive episodes, antidepressants like fluoxetine are preferred to address the specific symptoms associated with depression. Valproic acid is a mood stabilizer often used in bipolar disorder to manage manic episodes. Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic that may be used in bipolar disorder to help control manic episodes or as an adjunctive treatment, but it is not a first-line medication for depressive episodes.

5. A 33-year-old female diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has been functioning well on lithium for 11 months. At her most recent checkup, the psychiatric nurse practitioner states, 'You are ready to enter the maintenance therapy stage, so at this time I am going to adjust your dosage by prescribing:'

• A. A higher dosage
• B. Once-weekly dosing
• C. A lower dosage
• D. A different drug

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the maintenance therapy stage for bipolar I disorder, it is common to lower the dosage of lithium to prevent side effects while still maintaining stability. Lowering the dosage helps to find the lowest effective dose that can still manage symptoms effectively with minimal side effects.

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