ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B
1. A nurse is caring for a female client who has osteoporosis and a new prescription for raloxifene. What should the nurse assess prior to initiating therapy?
- A. Pregnancy status
- B. Bone density
- C. Calcium levels
- D. Blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pregnancy status. Raloxifene is a pregnancy category X drug, which means it can cause serious birth defects. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to assess the client's pregnancy status before initiating therapy. Choice B, bone density, while important in osteoporosis management, is not a specific concern related to initiating raloxifene therapy. Choice C, calcium levels, and choice D, blood pressure, are not directly related to the initiation of raloxifene therapy in a female client with osteoporosis.
2. A nurse is planning preoperative care for a client who will undergo surgery. Which of the following is the priority action by the nurse?
- A. Discuss whether family members will assist with postoperative care
- B. Review the client's current home environment
- C. Identify the client's usual coping mechanisms
- D. Determine what the client knows about the surgery
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the preoperative phase, determining what the client knows about the surgery is the priority. This action helps address misconceptions, provide necessary information, and ensure the client's understanding and cooperation. Choices A, B, and C are important aspects of preoperative care but assessing the client's knowledge about the surgery takes precedence to alleviate fears, enhance communication, and optimize outcomes.
3. Which of the following is a common manifestation of opioid withdrawal?
- A. Bradycardia and hypotension
- B. Tremors and increased blood pressure
- C. Severe muscle weakness and fatigue
- D. Severe hallucinations and delusions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tremors and increased blood pressure. During opioid withdrawal, individuals commonly experience symptoms such as tremors, increased blood pressure, and restlessness. Choice A, which suggests bradycardia and hypotension, is incorrect as opioid withdrawal often leads to tachycardia (rapid heart rate) and increased blood pressure. Choice C, severe muscle weakness and fatigue, is not a typical manifestation of opioid withdrawal. Choice D, severe hallucinations and delusions, is more characteristic of conditions like delirium tremens associated with alcohol withdrawal, rather than opioid withdrawal.
4. A nurse is caring for an older adult client. The nurse informs the client that straining while defecating can cause which of the following?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Gastric ulcer
- C. Dilated pupils
- D. Dysrhythmias
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dysrhythmias. Straining while defecating can lead to dysrhythmias due to increased vagal stimulation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Straining while defecating is not typically associated with causing diarrhea, gastric ulcers, or dilated pupils.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following outcomes indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Improvement in visual acuity
- B. Decreased respiratory rate
- C. Weight loss of 1.36 kg (3 lb) in 24 hours
- D. Increased urinary output
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output is the desired outcome when administering furosemide to a client with heart failure. Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes the excretion of excess fluids from the body, which helps in reducing fluid overload, a common symptom of heart failure. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the action of furosemide in treating heart failure. Visual acuity improvement, decreased respiratory rate, and rapid weight loss are not typical indicators of furosemide effectiveness in managing heart failure.
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