ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client is receiving Morphine IV for pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to monitor for adverse effects?
- A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes.
- B. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 30 minutes.
- C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation every hour.
- D. Monitor the client's heart rate every 5 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to monitor for adverse effects of Morphine IV is to check the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes. Respiratory depression is a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of Morphine. Monitoring the respiratory rate frequently allows for early detection and intervention if needed. Monitoring blood pressure, oxygen saturation, or heart rate alone may not provide early signs of respiratory depression, which is a critical adverse effect of Morphine IV.
2. A client with increased liver enzymes is taking herbal supplements. Which of the following herbal supplements should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Glucosamine
- B. Saw palmetto
- C. Kava
- D. St. John's wort
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should report kava to the provider because chronic use or high doses of kava can lead to liver damage, including severe liver failure. It is crucial for the nurse to be vigilant about any herbal supplement that could potentially worsen the client's liver condition.
3. A client is taking Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor, to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Increased TSH level
- B. Decreased ALT level
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Hyperlipidemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperlipidemia. Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor used in HIV treatment, can lead to hyperlipidemia, characterized by increased cholesterol and triglyceride levels. Monitoring lipid levels is crucial to identify and manage this potential adverse effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Ritonavir is not known to cause an increased TSH level, decreased ALT level, or hypoglycemia as adverse effects.
4. What are the Therapeutic Effects of Lithium?
- A. Prevents or decreases the incidence of acute manic episodes
- B. Maintenance of blood glucose
- C. Control of hyperglycemia in diabetic patients
- D. Diminished seizure activity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The therapeutic effect of lithium is that it prevents or decreases the incidence of acute manic episodes in patients with bipolar disorder. Lithium is commonly used as a mood stabilizer in the treatment of bipolar disorder due to its ability to reduce the frequency and severity of manic episodes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as lithium is not used for the maintenance of blood glucose, control of hyperglycemia in diabetic patients, or to diminish seizure activity. These effects are not associated with the use of lithium as a medication.
5. A client with Peptic Ulcer Disease who is taking Sucralfate PO has a new prescription for phenytoin to control seizures. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take an antacid with the sucralfate.
- B. Take sucralfate with a glass of milk.
- C. Allow a 2-hour interval between these medications.
- D. Chew the sucralfate thoroughly before swallowing.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Sucralfate can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin. To prevent this interaction, the client should allow a 2-hour interval between taking sucralfate and phenytoin. This interval helps ensure that each medication is absorbed effectively without affecting the other's absorption. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking an antacid with sucralfate, taking sucralfate with a glass of milk, or chewing sucralfate thoroughly before swallowing are not necessary or recommended instructions to prevent the interaction between sucralfate and phenytoin.
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