a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving morphine iv for pain management which of the following actions should the nurse take to monitor for ad
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ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A client is receiving Morphine IV for pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to monitor for adverse effects?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to monitor for adverse effects of Morphine IV is to check the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes. Respiratory depression is a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of Morphine. Monitoring the respiratory rate frequently allows for early detection and intervention if needed. Monitoring blood pressure, oxygen saturation, or heart rate alone may not provide early signs of respiratory depression, which is a critical adverse effect of Morphine IV.

2. What is the classification of furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide is classified as a loop diuretic, not an anticoagulant, iron supplement, or anticonvulsant. Loop diuretics, like furosemide, act in the loop of Henle in the kidney to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption, leading to increased urine output. This mechanism makes them effective in treating conditions such as edema and hypertension. Therefore, the correct classification for furosemide is a loop diuretic (Choice A).

3. A healthcare provider plans to administer Morphine IV to a postoperative client. Which of the following actions should the provider take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the provider is to withhold morphine if the client's respiratory rate is 12/min or less. Respiratory depression is a serious side effect of morphine and other opioids. Withholding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is essential to prevent further respiratory compromise in the client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because monitoring for seizures and confusion, protecting the client's skin from severe diarrhea, and administering morphine via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less are not the primary actions to ensure client safety when administering morphine IV. Respiratory status is crucial due to the risk of respiratory depression associated with opioid administration.

4. A client has a new prescription for allopurinol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed allopurinol is to drink 2 liters of water daily. This recommendation aims to reduce the risk of kidney stones, a potential side effect associated with allopurinol use. Adequate hydration helps prevent the formation of uric acid crystals in the kidneys, which can lead to kidney stones. Therefore, encouraging increased water intake is essential in the management of clients taking allopurinol.

5. A client has a new prescription for Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Take it with food.' Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole can cause gastrointestinal upset, and taking it with food helps reduce the risk of stomach irritation. It should not be taken on an empty stomach. Maintaining good hydration is important to prevent kidney-related side effects, so maintaining a fluid restriction, as in choice B, is not appropriate. Additionally, stopping the medication when manifestations subside, as in choice D, is incorrect as antibiotics should be taken for the full prescribed course to ensure eradication of the infection and to prevent antibiotic resistance.

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