Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving Morphine IV for pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to monitor for adverse effects?

• A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes.
• B. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 30 minutes.
• C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation every hour.
• D. Monitor the client's heart rate every 5 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to monitor for adverse effects of Morphine IV is to check the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes. Respiratory depression is a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of Morphine. Monitoring the respiratory rate frequently allows for early detection and intervention if needed. Monitoring blood pressure, oxygen saturation, or heart rate alone may not provide early signs of respiratory depression, which is a critical adverse effect of Morphine IV.

2. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about a new prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will take the medication with a high-fiber meal.
• B. I should report any vision changes to my healthcare provider.
• C. I will take the medication if my heart rate is below 60 bpm.
• D. I should avoid dairy products while taking this medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Visual disturbances, such as blurred vision or seeing halos, can be a sign of digoxin toxicity. It is crucial for the client to report any changes in vision to their healthcare provider promptly to prevent serious complications. Choice A is incorrect because taking Digoxin with a high-fiber meal can affect its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because taking Digoxin based on heart rate alone is not recommended without healthcare provider supervision. Choice D is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between Digoxin and dairy products.

3. A caregiver is being instructed by the healthcare provider of an adolescent client who has a new prescription for Albuterol, PO. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?

• A. You can take this medication to relieve an acute asthma attack.'
• B. Tremors are a potential adverse effect of this medication.'
• C. Long-term use of this medication can lead to hyperglycemia.'
• D. This medication can potentially slow the rate of skeletal growth.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tremors are a possible adverse effect of Albuterol due to its stimulation of beta2 receptors in skeletal muscles. It is important for the healthcare provider to educate the caregiver about potential side effects to enhance safety and monitoring of the adolescent client.

4. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should be included by the nurse?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• C. Change positions slowly.
• D. Take this medication with meals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client is prescribed Furosemide is to change positions slowly. Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness and increasing the risk of falls. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the nurse helps prevent these potential adverse effects.

5. A client is starting therapy with Atenolol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its mechanism of action in slowing down the heart rate. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor their pulse regularly and report any significant decreases to prevent complications related to bradycardia.

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