Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving Morphine IV for pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to monitor for adverse effects?

• A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes.
• B. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 30 minutes.
• C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation every hour.
• D. Monitor the client's heart rate every 5 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to monitor for adverse effects of Morphine IV is to check the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes. Respiratory depression is a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of Morphine. Monitoring the respiratory rate frequently allows for early detection and intervention if needed. Monitoring blood pressure, oxygen saturation, or heart rate alone may not provide early signs of respiratory depression, which is a critical adverse effect of Morphine IV.

2. A client has a prescription for Desmopressin for the treatment of Diabetes Insipidus. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Decrease fluid intake at the start of treatment.
• B. Monitor for nocturia.
• C. Report a weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) per week.
• D. Expect permanent polyuria with this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Desmopressin is a medication used to reduce diuresis in clients with diabetes insipidus. To prevent water intoxication, clients should be advised to decrease fluid intake at the beginning of treatment. This instruction helps to balance fluid levels in the body and prevent potential complications associated with excessive fluid intake while on Desmopressin therapy. Monitoring for signs of fluid retention, such as weight gain, and adjusting fluid intake accordingly are essential components of client education when initiating treatment with Desmopressin.

3. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer atenolol (Tenormin) to a client with angina. Which vital sign would cause the healthcare professional to question administering this drug?

• A. Respirations 12 breaths per minute
• B. Pulse 52 beats per minute
• C. Blood pressure 134/72
• D. Oxygen saturation 95%

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker medication that can lower heart rate. A pulse of 52 beats per minute is relatively low and administering atenolol could further decrease the heart rate, potentially leading to bradycardia. Monitoring the pulse rate and holding the medication if the pulse is below the prescribed parameters is crucial to prevent adverse effects such as bradycardia and hypotension.

4. Which of the following conditions is not treated with epinephrine?

• A. Renal disease
• B. Asthma
• C. Hypotension
• D. Glaucoma

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Epinephrine is not used to treat renal disease. Epinephrine is commonly used to treat conditions like asthma, hypotension, and glaucoma, but it is not an appropriate treatment for renal disease. Renal disease requires specific management strategies that do not involve the use of epinephrine.

5. A client is taking Epoetin Alfa for anemia. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Platelet count
• C. Hematocrit
• D. Serum potassium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the hematocrit level to evaluate the effectiveness of Epoetin Alfa therapy. Epoetin Alfa stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hematocrit levels. Monitoring the hematocrit helps assess the response to therapy and ensures that the medication is effectively addressing the anemia. White blood cell count and platelet count are not directly affected by Epoetin Alfa therapy. Serum potassium level monitoring is important for other medications that may impact potassium levels but is not specifically relevant to assessing the effectiveness of Epoetin Alfa in treating anemia.

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