ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client is receiving Morphine IV for pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to monitor for adverse effects?
- A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes.
- B. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 30 minutes.
- C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation every hour.
- D. Monitor the client's heart rate every 5 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to monitor for adverse effects of Morphine IV is to check the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes. Respiratory depression is a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of Morphine. Monitoring the respiratory rate frequently allows for early detection and intervention if needed. Monitoring blood pressure, oxygen saturation, or heart rate alone may not provide early signs of respiratory depression, which is a critical adverse effect of Morphine IV.
2. While reviewing a client's medical history, a healthcare professional notes a prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of Digoxin toxicity?
- A. Elevated blood pressure
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Yellow-tinged vision
- D. Ringing in the ears
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Yellow-tinged vision is a visual disturbance associated with Digoxin toxicity, often accompanied by other symptoms like nausea, vomiting, and confusion. Bradycardia is a common therapeutic effect of Digoxin, while elevated blood pressure and ringing in the ears are not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is yellow-tinged vision as a manifestation of Digoxin toxicity.
3. A client has a new prescription for Clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Avoid taking aspirin while on this medication.
- C. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- D. Take this medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid taking aspirin while on this medication.' Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that can increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin and other NSAIDs also affect platelet function and can further increase the risk of bleeding when combined with Clopidogrel. Therefore, it is important for the client to avoid taking aspirin while on this medication to reduce the risk of excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because there is no specific requirement to take Clopidogrel with food, avoid foods high in potassium, or take it at bedtime. The key instruction here is to avoid aspirin to prevent potential bleeding complications.
4. Which of the following is the antidote for Heparin toxicity?
- A. Protamine
- B. Methylene blue
- C. N-acetylcysteine
- D. Glucagon
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Protamine is the specific antidote for Heparin toxicity. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication, and if an overdose occurs or if there is excessive bleeding due to Heparin use, protamine, a positively charged molecule, can neutralize the anticoagulant effects of Heparin by forming a complex with it. This binding prevents Heparin from further inhibiting coagulation factors and helps in reversing its effects.
5. When starting amitriptyline, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Urinary retention
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Dry cough
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client starts taking amitriptyline, an important adverse effect to monitor for is urinary retention. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that can cause anticholinergic effects, including urinary retention. It is crucial to educate the client on recognizing and reporting this adverse effect to their healthcare provider. Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of amitriptyline and is more associated with other medications. Bradycardia is a possible adverse effect of amitriptyline, but urinary retention is a more common and significant concern. Dry cough is not a typical adverse effect of amitriptyline.
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