ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client is receiving Morphine IV for pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes.
- B. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 30 minutes.
- C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation every hour.
- D. Monitor the client's heart rate every 5 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse is to monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes while on Morphine IV to promptly detect respiratory depression, a critical adverse effect associated with this medication. Respiratory depression is a common side effect of opioid medications like Morphine and can be life-threatening. Monitoring the respiratory rate frequently enables the nurse to identify early signs of respiratory compromise and intervene promptly. Monitoring other vital signs like blood pressure, oxygen saturation, or heart rate is important but not as crucial as monitoring respiratory rate when a client is on Morphine IV.
2. While teaching a client with a new prescription for Warfarin, which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid eating large amounts of green leafy vegetables.
- B. I will take my medication at the same time every day.
- C. I will increase my intake of foods high in potassium.
- D. I will report any signs of bleeding to my provider.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because Warfarin interacts with vitamin K, found in green leafy vegetables, not potassium. The client should avoid consuming large amounts of foods high in vitamin K to maintain the effectiveness of Warfarin therapy. Increasing potassium intake is not a concern related to Warfarin therapy, so this statement indicates a need for further teaching. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements indicating good understanding of Warfarin therapy. Avoiding large amounts of green leafy vegetables helps prevent fluctuations in vitamin K levels, taking medication consistently maintains therapeutic levels, and reporting any signs of bleeding is essential for monitoring and managing potential side effects of Warfarin.
3. A client has a prescription for Timolol eye drops for the treatment of glaucoma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Apply gentle pressure to the nasolacrimal duct for 30 to 60 seconds after application.
- B. Avoid blinking immediately after instilling the drops.
- C. Keep your eyes closed for 5 minutes after application.
- D. Administer the drops directly onto the cornea.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to apply gentle pressure to the nasolacrimal duct for 30 to 60 seconds after application. This technique helps prevent systemic absorption of the medication, reducing the risk of systemic side effects. By applying pressure, the drainage of the medication into the bloodstream through the nasolacrimal duct is minimized, enhancing the drug's local ocular effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blinking immediately after instilling the drops, keeping eyes closed for 5 minutes, and administering the drops directly onto the cornea are not recommended practices for administering Timolol eye drops.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer clindamycin 200 mg by intermittent IV bolus. The amount available is clindamycin injection 200 mg in 100 mL 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) to infuse over 30 min. How many mL/hr should the IV pump be set to deliver?
- A. 200 mL/hr
- B. 150 mL/hr
- C. 100 mL/hr
- D. 250 mL/hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in mL/hr: (Volume in mL / Time in hours) = Flow rate in mL/hr. In this case, (100 mL / 0.5 hr) = 200 mL/hr. Therefore, the IV pump should be set to deliver 200 mL/hr to administer clindamycin 200 mg over 30 minutes. Choice A is correct because it provides the accurate flow rate needed for the administration of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not calculate the flow rate correctly based on the volume and time specified in the question.
5. A client has a new prescription for combination oral NRTIs for the treatment of HIV. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in discharge teaching?
- A. These medications work by inhibiting enzymes to prevent HIV replication.
- B. These medications work by preventing protein synthesis within the HIV cell.
- C. These medications work by weakening the cell wall of the HIV virus.
- D. These medications work by blocking HIV entry into cells.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. NRTI antiretroviral medications inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, which is essential for HIV replication. By blocking this enzyme, the medications prevent the virus from replicating and spreading. This mechanism of action helps to control the progression of HIV infection in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because NRTIs do not work by preventing protein synthesis, weakening the cell wall of the virus, or blocking HIV entry into cells. These mechanisms are associated with different classes of antiretroviral medications used in HIV treatment.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access