ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client is receiving Morphine IV for pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes.
- B. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 30 minutes.
- C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation every hour.
- D. Monitor the client's heart rate every 5 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse is to monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes while on Morphine IV to promptly detect respiratory depression, a critical adverse effect associated with this medication. Respiratory depression is a common side effect of opioid medications like Morphine and can be life-threatening. Monitoring the respiratory rate frequently enables the nurse to identify early signs of respiratory compromise and intervene promptly. Monitoring other vital signs like blood pressure, oxygen saturation, or heart rate is important but not as crucial as monitoring respiratory rate when a client is on Morphine IV.
2. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about managing Digoxin toxicity. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take an extra dose of Digoxin if I miss one.
- B. I should notify my healthcare provider if I experience visual changes.
- C. I will stop taking Digoxin if my heart rate is below 70 bpm.
- D. I should take antacids to alleviate gastrointestinal upset.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Visual changes, such as yellow or blurred vision, can be indicative of digoxin toxicity. It is crucial for clients to inform their healthcare provider promptly if they encounter these symptoms. Prompt medical attention can help manage potential toxicity and prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking an extra dose of Digoxin, stopping Digoxin based on heart rate alone, and using antacids for gastrointestinal upset are not appropriate actions when managing Digoxin toxicity.
3. A client with HIV is starting therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Ringing in the ears
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Fatigue is a common adverse effect of zidovudine due to its impact on bone marrow, leading to anemia. Zidovudine is known to cause bone marrow suppression, resulting in decreased production of red blood cells and subsequent fatigue.
4. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch for Angina Pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Remove the patch each evening.
- B. Do not cut the patch in half even if angina attacks are under control.
- C. Remove the nitroglycerin patch for 30 minutes if a headache occurs.
- D. Apply a new patch every 48 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to remove the patch each evening to prevent tolerance. This allows for a nitrate-free period of 10 to 12 hours during each 24-hour period, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to the medication. Choice B is incorrect because cutting the patch could alter the dose delivery and is not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as removing the patch for 30 minutes when a headache occurs may not be effective in managing symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as Nitroglycerin patches are usually applied once daily, not every 48 hours.
5. A healthcare professional reviewing a client's medical record notes a new prescription for verifying the trough level of the client's medication. Which of the following actions should the professional take?
- A. Obtain a blood specimen immediately prior to administering the next dose of medication.
- B. Verify that the client has been taking the medication for 24 hours before obtaining a blood specimen.
- C. Ask the client to provide a urine specimen after the next dose of medication.
- D. Administer the medication, and obtain a blood specimen 30 minutes later.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To verify trough levels of a medication, the healthcare professional should obtain a blood specimen immediately before administering the next dose of medication. This timing ensures an accurate representation of the medication's lowest concentration in the bloodstream, which is crucial for therapeutic monitoring and dose adjustments. Choice B is incorrect because waiting 24 hours after taking the medication would not provide an accurate trough level. Choice C is incorrect as urine specimens are not used to measure trough levels. Choice D is incorrect because obtaining a blood specimen 30 minutes after administering the medication would not reflect the trough level, as it is the lowest concentration before the next dose.
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