ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client is receiving Morphine IV for pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes.
- B. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 30 minutes.
- C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation every hour.
- D. Monitor the client's heart rate every 5 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse is to monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes while on Morphine IV to promptly detect respiratory depression, a critical adverse effect associated with this medication. Respiratory depression is a common side effect of opioid medications like Morphine and can be life-threatening. Monitoring the respiratory rate frequently enables the nurse to identify early signs of respiratory compromise and intervene promptly. Monitoring other vital signs like blood pressure, oxygen saturation, or heart rate is important but not as crucial as monitoring respiratory rate when a client is on Morphine IV.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Haloperidol 2 mg PO every 12 hr. The available medication is haloperidol 1 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer?
- A. 1 tablet
- B. 2 tablets
- C. 3 tablets
- D. 4 tablets
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets needed, divide the desired dose by the dose per tablet. In this case, (2 mg / 1 mg/tablet) = 2 tablets required to administer the correct dosage of Haloperidol.
3. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for an antihypertensive medication. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide?
- A. Be sure to limit your potassium intake while taking the medication.
- B. You should check your blood pressure every 8 hours while taking this medication.
- C. Your medication dosage will be increased if you develop tachycardia.
- D. Change positions slowly when you move from sitting to standing.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Orthostatic hypotension is a common adverse effect of antihypertensive medications. The client should move slowly to a sitting or standing position and should be taught to sit or lie down if lightheadedness or dizziness occurs. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Limiting potassium intake is usually not necessary with antihypertensive medications. Checking blood pressure every 8 hours is not a standard recommendation unless specified by a healthcare provider. Increasing medication dosage due to tachycardia is not a typical practice for antihypertensive medications.
4. When should a patient taking omeprazole be administered the medication?
- A. Before bedtime
- B. After dinner
- C. In the morning on an empty stomach
- D. With the patient's lunch meal
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Omeprazole should be administered in the morning on an empty stomach to maximize its effectiveness. This timing is important as omeprazole works best when taken before a meal to inhibit acid production by the stomach. Taking it on an empty stomach in the morning allows the medication to be absorbed efficiently and provides optimal therapeutic effects throughout the day. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking omeprazole before bedtime, after dinner, or with lunch may not allow the medication to work effectively as it requires an empty stomach for better absorption and action.
5. A healthcare professional is obtaining a medication history from a client who is to receive Imipenem-cilastatin IV to treat an infection. Which of the following medications the client also receives puts them at risk for a medication interaction?
- A. Regular insulin
- B. Furosemide
- C. Valproic acid
- D. Ferrous sulfate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Valproic acid. Imipenem-cilastatin decreases the blood levels of valproic acid, an antiseizure medication, which can lead to increased seizure activity. Monitoring and adjusting the dosage of valproic acid may be necessary when co-administered with Imipenem-cilastatin to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D do not typically interact significantly with Imipenem-cilastatin and are not associated with a high risk of adverse interactions in this scenario.
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