a nurse is caring for a client who is in the immediate postoperative period following a partial laryngectomy which of the following parameters should
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Detailed Answer Key Medical Surgical

1. A client is in the immediate postoperative period following a partial laryngectomy. Which of the following parameters should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client following a partial laryngectomy, the priority assessment is always airway patency. This is crucial to ensure that the client can breathe adequately and prevent any complications related to airway obstruction. Monitoring airway patency takes precedence over other assessments such as pain severity, wound drainage, and tissue integrity. Any compromise in airway patency requires immediate intervention to maintain the client's respiratory function and safety.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is being taught by a nurse. Which nutritional information should the nurse include in the teaching? (SATA)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, it's important to consider the impact of nutrition on respiratory function. Eating high-fiber foods can lead to increased gas production, causing abdominal bloating and potentially worsening shortness of breath. Therefore, it is advisable for clients with COPD to avoid high-fiber foods to prevent these issues. Resting before meals can help manage dyspnea, and having smaller, more frequent meals can prevent bloating. Increasing calorie and protein intake is essential to prevent malnourishment in COPD patients. Additionally, limiting carbohydrate intake is crucial as it can increase carbon dioxide production, leading to a higher risk of acidosis in these individuals.

3. A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory capabilities. To meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Joint Commission's Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Since the client presented at 1500 (3:00 PM), the percutaneous coronary intervention should be performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM), to adhere to the 90-minute timeline for optimal outcomes.

4. A client is on intravenous heparin to treat a pulmonary embolism. The client's most recent partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was 25 seconds. What action should the nurse anticipate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For clients on heparin therapy, a PTT value of 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal range is required to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. The normal PTT range is 25 to 35 seconds. In this case, the client's PTT of 25 seconds falls below the therapeutic range, indicating that the heparin dose is insufficient. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate increasing the heparin rate to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.

5. A client is 12 hours postoperative and has a chest tube to a disposable water-seal drainage system with suction. The healthcare provider should intervene for which of the following observations?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an air leak, which can compromise the system's integrity and affect the client's respiratory status. The other options are expected findings in a client with a chest tube drainage system: constant bubbling in the suction-control chamber indicates proper suction function, bloody drainage in the collection chamber is expected in the immediate postoperative period, and fluid-level fluctuations in the water-seal chamber demonstrate normal drainage and lung re-expansion.

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