a nurse is caring for a client who is in the immediate postoperative period following a partial laryngectomy which of the following parameters should
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1. A client is in the immediate postoperative period following a partial laryngectomy. Which of the following parameters should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client following a partial laryngectomy, the priority assessment is always airway patency. This is crucial to ensure that the client can breathe adequately and prevent any complications related to airway obstruction. Monitoring airway patency takes precedence over other assessments such as pain severity, wound drainage, and tissue integrity. Any compromise in airway patency requires immediate intervention to maintain the client's respiratory function and safety.

2. When teaching a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who will start using fluticasone via MDI twice daily, which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: It is crucial for clients using inhaled corticosteroids like fluticasone to inspect their mouths daily for signs of oral thrush, a common side effect. Checking the mouth can help identify lesions early, allowing for timely intervention to prevent worsening of the condition. Monitoring heart rate is not specifically required for this medication. Fluticasone is a maintenance medication used to manage COPD, not to relieve acute attacks. Skipping doses, especially in the morning, can lead to inadequate control of COPD symptoms.

3. A nurse in an urgent care center is caring for a client who is having an acute asthma exacerbation. Which of the following actions is the nurse's highest priority?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During an acute asthma exacerbation, the priority intervention is to administer a nebulized beta-adrenergic medication, such as albuterol, to help open the airways and improve breathing. This action helps address the underlying cause of the exacerbation. Oxygen therapy may be needed but is not the priority over administering the bronchodilator. Providing rest and positioning the client in high-Fowler's are important but come after administering the medication to address the immediate breathing difficulties.

4. A client is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Effective oxygen therapy should improve the client's ability to perform activities without dyspnea. This indicates that the oxygen therapy is adequately supporting the client's respiratory needs. An oxygen saturation of 92% may suggest the need for a higher flow rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is elevated, indicating potential respiratory distress. A productive cough does not necessarily indicate effective oxygen therapy, as it is a symptom of respiratory irritation or infection, not oxygenation status.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is being taught by a nurse. Which nutritional information should the nurse include in the teaching? (SATA)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, it's important to consider the impact of nutrition on respiratory function. Eating high-fiber foods can lead to increased gas production, causing abdominal bloating and potentially worsening shortness of breath. Therefore, it is advisable for clients with COPD to avoid high-fiber foods to prevent these issues. Resting before meals can help manage dyspnea, and having smaller, more frequent meals can prevent bloating. Increasing calorie and protein intake is essential to prevent malnourishment in COPD patients. Additionally, limiting carbohydrate intake is crucial as it can increase carbon dioxide production, leading to a higher risk of acidosis in these individuals.

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