a nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor and requests pain management which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A client in active labor requests pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During active labor, nonpharmacologic comfort measures like placing the client in a warm shower are effective for pain relief. Ondansetron (Choice A) is an antiemetic and not used for pain management during labor. Applying fundal pressure (Choice C) can cause harm and is not recommended due to the risk of uterine rupture. Assisting the client to a supine position (Choice D) is not ideal in labor as it can decrease blood flow to the placenta and is associated with increased maternal complications.

2. A school nurse is teaching a parent about absence seizures. What information should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because absence seizures are brief and can be mistaken for daydreaming. Choice A is incorrect because absence seizures typically last a few seconds, not 30 to 60 seconds. Choice C is incorrect as absence seizures usually occur suddenly without an aura. Choice D is incorrect because absence seizures have a sudden onset, not a gradual one.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has schizophrenia and is taking chlorpromazine. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sedation. Chlorpromazine, an antipsychotic medication, commonly causes sedation as an adverse effect. Weight gain (choice A) is a potential side effect of some antipsychotic medications, but it is not specifically associated with chlorpromazine. Dry mouth (choice B) is a common anticholinergic side effect of many medications but is not a prominent adverse effect of chlorpromazine. Diarrhea (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of chlorpromazine.

5. A client receiving chemotherapy is being taught about infection prevention by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid crowds to reduce the risk of infection.' Clients receiving chemotherapy are immunocompromised, so avoiding crowds can help decrease the likelihood of exposure to infections. Wearing a mask when gardening (choice A) is important but not directly related to infection prevention in the context of chemotherapy. Taking a daily vitamin (choice C) may be beneficial for overall health but is not specifically focused on infection prevention. Increasing intake of high-protein foods (choice D) is essential for nutrition but does not directly address infection prevention.

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