ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A client is experiencing an acute exacerbation of Crohn's disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client to increase dietary fiber.
- B. Maintain the client on a low-residue diet.
- C. Provide the client with frequent high-calorie snacks.
- D. Encourage the client to eat a high-fiber diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During an acute exacerbation of Crohn's disease, the nurse should maintain the client on a low-residue diet. This diet helps to minimize bowel irritation by reducing the volume and frequency of stools. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Encouraging the client to increase dietary fiber (Choice A) and eat a high-fiber diet (Choice D) can worsen symptoms and aggravate bowel inflammation in Crohn's disease. Providing the client with frequent high-calorie snacks (Choice C) may not be appropriate during an exacerbation since high-fat foods can be harder to digest and may exacerbate symptoms.
2. What is the initial intervention for a patient with chest pain?
- A. Administer aspirin
- B. Administer nitroglycerin
- C. Provide pain relief
- D. Prepare for surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct initial intervention for a patient with chest pain is to administer aspirin. Aspirin helps reduce the risk of clot formation by inhibiting platelet aggregation, which can be beneficial in case the chest pain is due to a cardiac event. Administering nitroglycerin may follow aspirin administration to help relieve chest pain by dilating blood vessels. Providing pain relief is a general approach and may not address the underlying cause of chest pain. Preparing for surgery would not be the initial intervention for chest pain unless there are specific indications for immediate surgical intervention.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in patients receiving furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly leads to potassium loss in the urine, causing hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients taking furosemide. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with furosemide use.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following findings indicates a need to revise the client's plan of care?
- A. Serum sodium 144 mEq/L.
- B. HbA1c 10%.
- C. Random serum glucose 190 mg/dL.
- D. Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevated random serum glucose levels of 190 mg/dL indicate hyperglycemia and poor blood sugar control, requiring a revised plan of care. HbA1c levels above 7% also indicate long-term poor control of blood sugar. Serum sodium of 144 mEq/L and creatinine of 1.2 mg/dL are within normal ranges and do not directly indicate a need for a plan of care revision.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client with schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure: 102/56 mm Hg.
- B. Heart rate: 95/min.
- C. Sore throat.
- D. WBC count 14,000/mm^3.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated WBC count should be reported to the provider as it may indicate an infection. Elevated white blood cell counts can be a sign of an underlying infection or inflammation. Monitoring and reporting abnormal laboratory values are essential for timely interventions. The other options, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and a sore throat, while important for overall assessment, are not directly related to the potential medical urgency indicated by an elevated WBC count.
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