a nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with severe preeclampsia is to monitor intake and output. This is crucial to assess kidney function, fluid balance, and detect any signs of deterioration. Administering magnesium sulfate is indicated for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia, but it is not the primary intervention related to care planning. Placing the client in the left lateral position is not a specific intervention for managing preeclampsia. Providing a low-sodium diet is not typically recommended for clients with severe preeclampsia as sodium restriction is not a primary treatment modality for this condition.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the FHR baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates fetal bradycardia, which can be caused by maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia in the fetus rather than bradycardia. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to manifest as tachycardia due to compensation for decreased oxygen delivery. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) may lead to fetal tachycardia as a sign of fetal distress, not bradycardia.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to rotate the patch site each time they apply it. This practice helps prevent skin irritation and ensures the effectiveness of nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Applying the patch to the same site each time can lead to skin irritation and decreased patch efficacy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because applying the patch to the upper arm, removing it before showering, and placing it on the lower abdomen do not promote proper rotation of patch sites, which is essential for optimal outcomes.

4. A nurse manager is planning to teach staff about critical pathways. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Critical pathways are structured, multi-disciplinary plans of care designed to decrease health care costs and improve outcomes by standardizing and streamlining processes. Choice A is incorrect because critical pathways have specific timeframes for completion. Choice C is incorrect as patients are expected to follow the critical pathway without deviations to achieve optimal outcomes. Choice D is incorrect because budgets do not create critical pathways; rather, they are based on clinical guidelines and best practices.

5. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient receiving IV potassium?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is receiving IV potassium, it is crucial to monitor the IV site. Potassium can be irritating to the veins and may cause phlebitis or infiltration. Monitoring the IV site allows early detection of any potential complications. Checking urine output (Choice A) is important to assess kidney function but is not directly related to monitoring IV potassium. Blood pressure (Choice B) and respiratory rate (Choice D) are essential vital signs to monitor in general patient care but are not specific to monitoring IV potassium administration.

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