Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has septic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Temperature of 38°C (100.4°F).
• B. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr.
• C. Heart rate of 92/min.
• D. Capillary refill time of 2 seconds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urinary output of 40 mL/hr is below the expected range and should be reported to the provider as it may indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to monitor in a client with septic shock. Choices A, C, and D are within acceptable ranges for a client with septic shock and do not indicate immediate concerns. A temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) is slightly elevated but can be expected in septic shock. A heart rate of 92/min is within the normal range for an adult. A capillary refill time of 2 seconds is also normal, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion.

2. A client with a new diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will avoid taking ibuprofen for my pain.
• B. I will avoid eating spicy foods.
• C. I will limit my intake of dairy products.
• D. I will take my antacids 30 minutes before meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with peptic ulcer disease should avoid spicy foods as they can exacerbate symptoms and delay healing. Ibuprofen can worsen peptic ulcers by irritating the stomach lining, so it should be avoided. While limiting dairy products may be beneficial for some individuals with lactose intolerance, it is not a specific recommendation for peptic ulcer disease. Taking antacids before meals can help neutralize stomach acid; however, the timing may vary depending on the type of antacid, so there is no universal rule of taking antacids 30 minutes before meals. Choice A is incorrect because the client should avoid taking ibuprofen due to its potential to worsen peptic ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between dairy product intake and peptic ulcer disease. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of antacid administration can vary and should be guided by specific recommendations.

3. What is the primary action when caring for a patient with a stage 3 pressure ulcer?

• A. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing
• B. Provide wound debridement
• C. Change the dressing daily
• D. Apply moist gauze to the ulcer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply a hydrocolloid dressing. This type of dressing helps maintain a moist environment that is conducive to healing in stage 3 pressure ulcers. Providing wound debridement (choice B) is more suitable for higher stages of pressure ulcers where there is necrotic tissue. Changing the dressing daily (choice C) may be necessary but is not the primary action for a stage 3 pressure ulcer. Applying moist gauze (choice D) is not the recommended approach as it does not provide the same benefits as a hydrocolloid dressing.

4. A nurse is planning to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which of the following should the nurse do to prevent an adverse transfusion reaction?

• A. Verify the client's blood type with the provider's prescription
• B. Ensure the client's consent for the transfusion is on file
• C. Administer a diuretic prior to starting the transfusion
• D. Check the client's temperature prior to the transfusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to verify the client's blood type with the provider's prescription. This is crucial to prevent an adverse transfusion reaction due to incompatibility. Ensuring the blood type matches before starting the transfusion is a standard safety practice. Option B, ensuring client consent, is important but not directly related to preventing a transfusion reaction. Option C, administering a diuretic, is unnecessary and can be harmful in this context. Option D, checking the client's temperature, is important for general assessment but not specifically focused on preventing a transfusion reaction.

5. When a client with schizophrenia who experiences auditory hallucinations says, 'It's hard not to listen to the voices,' which question should the nurse ask?

• A. Do you understand that the voices are not real?
• B. Why do you think the voices are talking to you?
• C. Have you tried going to a private place when this occurs?
• D. What helps you ignore what you are hearing?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct question for the nurse to ask the client who experiences auditory hallucinations and finds it hard not to listen to the voices is, 'What helps you ignore what you are hearing?' This question focuses on promoting coping strategies and therapeutic communication, encouraging the client to share what techniques or interventions have been effective for managing the auditory hallucinations. Choice A is incorrect because it assumes the client does not understand that the voices are not real, which may not be the case. Choice B delves into the reasons behind the voices, which may not be immediately helpful in managing the current situation. Choice C suggests a physical solution of going to a private place, which may not address the underlying issue of coping with the voices.

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