Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has septic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Temperature of 38°C (100.4°F).
• B. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr.
• C. Heart rate of 92/min.
• D. Capillary refill time of 2 seconds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urinary output of 40 mL/hr is below the expected range and should be reported to the provider as it may indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to monitor in a client with septic shock. Choices A, C, and D are within acceptable ranges for a client with septic shock and do not indicate immediate concerns. A temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) is slightly elevated but can be expected in septic shock. A heart rate of 92/min is within the normal range for an adult. A capillary refill time of 2 seconds is also normal, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer potassium chloride IV to a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Give the medication as a bolus over 10 minutes.
• B. Dilute the medication before administration.
• C. Infuse the medication at a rate of 10 mEq/hr.
• D. Administer the medication undiluted.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering potassium chloride IV to a client with hypokalemia is to infuse the medication at a rate of 10 mEq/hr. This slow infusion rate is crucial to prevent the development of hyperkalemia, a potentially dangerous condition. Option A is incorrect because giving the medication as a bolus over 10 minutes can lead to adverse effects. Option B is incorrect as potassium chloride does not necessarily need to be diluted before administration in this scenario. Option D is incorrect as administering the medication undiluted can also increase the risk of hyperkalemia.

3. A client who is taking phenytoin is being taught about contraceptive options. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. You should use a backup method of birth control while taking phenytoin.
• B. Phenytoin can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
• C. You should stop taking phenytoin while using oral contraceptives.
• D. Phenytoin can increase the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Phenytoin can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, so it is important to inform the client about this interaction. Using an additional form of contraception, such as a backup method, is recommended to ensure adequate protection against pregnancy. Choice A is incorrect because it lacks specificity about the decrease in effectiveness of oral contraceptives caused by phenytoin. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests stopping phenytoin use while using oral contraceptives, which is not the appropriate action. Choice D is incorrect as phenytoin is known to decrease, not increase, the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.

4. A client has Clostridium difficile infection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Wash hands with an alcohol-based hand rub.
• B. Place the client on contact precautions.
• C. Wear a mask when entering the client's room.
• D. Double-bag all linens before removing them from the room.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with Clostridium difficile infection is to place the client on contact precautions. This helps prevent the spread of the infection to other clients. Washing hands with an alcohol-based hand rub is important for infection control but is not specific to preventing the spread of Clostridium difficile. Wearing a mask may be necessary for airborne precautions but is not the priority for Clostridium difficile infection. Double-bagging linens is not a standard practice for preventing the spread of Clostridium difficile.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion (hypokalemia) due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. This can result in adverse effects such as muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other complications. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not an adverse effect of furosemide but rather an elevated potassium level. Hyperglycemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice D) are not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, monitoring potassium levels and addressing hypokalemia is crucial in clients taking furosemide.

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