Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from the operating room following the creation of a colostomy. The nurse is assessing the drainage in the pouch attached to the site where the colostomy was formed and notes serosanguineous drainage. Which nursing action is most appropriate based on this assessment?

• A. Notify the physician
• B. Document the amount and characteristics of the drainage
• C. Apply ice to the stoma site
• D. Apply pressure to the site

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the first 24 to 72 hours following surgery, mucus and serosanguineous drainage are expected from the stoma. Documenting the amount and characteristics of the drainage is appropriate. The nurse does not need to notify the physician because this is an expected finding. Applying ice or pressure to the site is not necessary.

2. Michael, a 42 y.o. man is admitted to the med-surg floor with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. His BP is 136/76, pulse 96, Resps 22 and temp 101. His past history includes hyperlipidemia and alcohol abuse. The doctor prescribes an NG tube. Before inserting the tube, you explain the purpose to patient. Which of the following is a most accurate explanation?

• A. It empties the stomach of fluids and gas.
• B. It prevents spasms at the sphincter of Oddi.
• C. It prevents air from forming in the small intestine and large intestine.
• D. It removes bile from the gallbladder.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Explain to the patient that the NG tube is used to empty the stomach of fluids and gas, which helps relieve symptoms of acute pancreatitis.

3. A nurse is monitoring a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of appendicitis. The client is scheduled for surgery in 2 hours. The client begins to complain of increased abdominal pain and begins to vomit. On assessment the nurse notes that the abdomen is distended and the bowel sounds are diminished. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Administer dilaudid
• B. Notify the physician
• C. Call and ask the operating room team to perform the surgery as soon as possible
• D. Reposition the client and apply a heating pad on a warm setting to the client’s abdomen.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The symptoms suggest possible perforation or peritonitis, which are serious complications requiring immediate medical attention. The nurse should promptly notify the physician.

4. An intubated patient is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a Salem sump tube at a rate of 60ml/hr. Gastric residuals have been 30-40ml when monitored Q4H. You check the gastric residual and aspirate 220ml. What is your first response to this finding?

• A. Notify the doctor immediately.
• B. Stop the feeding, and clamp the NG tube.
• C. Discard the 220ml, and clamp the NG tube.
• D. Give a prescribed GI stimulant such as metoclopramide (Reglan).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: If gastric residuals are high during continuous enteral feedings, the first response is to stop the feeding and clamp the NG tube.

5. A client has been diagnosed with adenocarcinoma of the stomach and is scheduled to undergo a subtotal gastrectomy (Billroth II procedure). During pre-operative teaching, the nurse is reinforcing information about the procedure. Which of the following explanations is most accurate?

• A. The procedure will result in enlargement of the pyloric sphincter
• B. The procedure will result in anastomosis of the gastric stump to the jejunum
• C. The procedure will result in removal of the duodenum
• D. The procedure will result in repositioning of the vagus nerve

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Billroth II procedure involves anastomosis of the gastric stump to the jejunum.

Similar Questions