Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for an abdominal perineal resection with permanent colostomy. Which of the following measures would most likely be included in the plan for the client's preoperative preparation?

• A. Keep the client NPO for 2 days before surgery.
• B. Administer kanamycin (Kantrex) the night before surgery.
• C. Inform the client that chest tubes will be in place after surgery.
• D. Advise the client to limit activity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Antibiotics are administered preoperatively to reduce the bacterial count in the colon. The client will be placed on a low residue diet to help cleanse the bowel before surgery but typically is not placed on NPO status until 8 to 12 hours before surgery. Laxatives and enemas may also be administered. Chest tubes would not be expected postoperatively. There is no need to limit the client's activity before surgery.

2. Which of the following medications is most effective for treating the pain associated with irritable bowel disease?

• A. Acetaminophen
• B. Opiates
• C. Steroids
• D. Stool softeners

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acetaminophen is often the first line of treatment for pain associated with irritable bowel disease due to its safety profile.

3. During the assessment of a client’s mouth, the nurse notes the absence of saliva. The client is also complaining of pain near the area of the ear. The client has been NPO for several days because of the insertion of an NG tube. Based on these findings, the nurse suspects that the client is developing which of the following mouth conditions?

• A. Stomatitis
• B. Oral candidiasis
• C. Parotitis
• D. Gingivitis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Parotitis. Parotitis, inflammation of the parotid glands, can occur due to the absence of saliva and dehydration, often associated with being NPO and having an NG tube. Stomatitis (choice A) is inflammation of the oral mucosa, not specifically related to absent saliva. Oral candidiasis (choice B) is a fungal infection that can occur in the mouth, not directly related to the absence of saliva. Gingivitis (choice D) is inflammation of the gums and is not typically associated with the absence of saliva and dehydration.

4. The nurse is evaluating the plan of care for a client with peptic ulcer disease with a nursing diagnosis of Acute Pain. The nurse would determine that the client has not met the expected outcomes if the client states

• A. That pain is relieved with histamine H2 receptor antagonists.
• B. That irritating foods have been eliminated from the diet.
• C. The client is being awakened at 2 AM with heartburn.
• D. The client has absence of pain before meals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Expected outcomes for the client with peptic ulcer disease experiencing pain include elimination of irritating foods from the diet, ability to take prescribed medications that will reduce pain, reporting that the pain is relieved or prevented with medication, and an ability to sleep through the night without pain. The client who continues to be awakened by pain requires further modification of medication therapy, which may include adjustment of timing of histamine H2 receptor antagonist or an additional dose of antacid before the time when pain awakens the client.

5. A client with irritable bowel syndrome is being prepared for discharge. Which of the following meal plans should the nurse give the client?

• A. Low fiber, low-fat
• B. High fiber, low-fat
• C. Low fiber, high-fat
• D. High-fiber, high-fat

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A high fiber, low-fat diet is recommended for clients with irritable bowel syndrome to promote bowel regularity and reduce symptoms.

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