Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following best describes the method of action of medications, such as ranitidine (Zantac), which are used in the treatment of peptic ulcer disease?

• A. Neutralize acid
• B. Reduce acid secretions
• C. Stimulate gastrin release
• D. Protect the mucosal barrier

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Medications like ranitidine (Zantac) are H2 receptor antagonists that reduce acid secretions in the stomach, helping to treat peptic ulcer disease.

2. Kevin has a history of peptic ulcer disease and vomits coffee-ground emesis. What does this indicate?

• A. He has fresh, active upper GI bleeding.
• B. He needs immediate saline gastric lavage.
• C. His gastric bleeding occurred 2 hours earlier.
• D. He needs a transfusion of packed RBC’s.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Coffee-ground emesis indicates that the gastric bleeding occurred 2 hours earlier.

3. A nurse is performing an assessment on a client with a suspected diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. The nurse assesses the client, knowing that which of the following is a hallmark sign of this disorder?

• A. Severe abdominal pain relieved by vomiting
• B. Severe abdominal pain that is unrelieved by vomiting
• C. Hypothermia
• D. Epigastric pain radiating to the neck area

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A hallmark sign of acute pancreatitis is severe abdominal pain that is not relieved by vomiting. Nausea and vomiting are common presenting symptoms, with vomitus typically consisting of gastric and duodenal contents. Hypothermia is not a hallmark sign of acute pancreatitis. Fever, typically less than 38 degrees centigrade, is more common. Epigastric pain radiating to the neck area is not a characteristic sign of acute pancreatitis. Therefore, choice B is the correct answer.

4. Which of the following diagnostic tests should be performed annually over age 50 to screen for colon cancer?

• A. Abdominal CT scan
• B. Abdominal x-ray
• C. Colonoscopy
• D. Fecal occult blood test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A fecal occult blood test should be performed annually for individuals over age 50 to screen for colon cancer.

5. A client who has had gastrectomy is not producing sufficient intrinsic factor. The nurse interprets that the client has lost the ability to absorb cyanocobalamin (vitamin B12) in the

• A. Stomach.
• B. Small intestine.
• C. Large intestine.
• D. Colon.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Intrinsic factor is produced in the stomach but is used to aid in the absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine. Vitamin B12 is not absorbed in the large intestine (options 3 and 4).

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