ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B
1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed enalapril. The provider should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Question: When a client with heart failure is prescribed enalapril, monitoring for hyperkalemia is essential. Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can lead to an increase in potassium levels in the blood. This adverse effect can be serious and potentially life-threatening. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because enalapril does not typically cause hypertension, hypokalemia, or hyperglycemia as adverse effects. It's essential for healthcare providers to be vigilant in monitoring potassium levels when clients are on ACE inhibitors like enalapril.
2. What are the complications of diabetes mellitus that a nurse should monitor for?
- A. Peripheral neuropathy and retinopathy
- B. All of the above
- C. Diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state
- D. Nephropathy and cardiovascular disease
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Complications of diabetes mellitus that a nurse should monitor for include nephropathy and cardiovascular disease, in addition to diabetic ketoacidosis, hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, neuropathy, and retinopathy. While choices A and C mention some complications of diabetes, they do not cover all the complications that a nurse should monitor for. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests selecting all options, which is not accurate.
3. A client with tuberculosis is about to start combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer? (SATA)
- A. Acyclovir
- B. Pyrazinamide
- C. Isoniazid
- D. Rifampin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pyrazinamide. In the treatment of tuberculosis, a combination drug therapy is usually employed. Pyrazinamide and rifampin are two key drugs used in this regimen. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used for herpes infections, not for tuberculosis. Isoniazid is another medication used in tuberculosis treatment, but in this case, the question asked for medications to administer, and the correct choices should be those commonly used in tuberculosis combination therapy.
4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer digoxin to a patient with heart failure. Which of the following lab results should be reviewed before administering the medication?
- A. Potassium level
- B. Calcium level
- C. Hemoglobin level
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium level. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can potentiate the effects of low potassium levels, leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Therefore, it is essential to review the patient's potassium level before administering digoxin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because calcium level, hemoglobin level, and white blood cell count are not directly related to the risk of digoxin toxicity.
5. While working the night shift, a nurse observes a colleague behaving strangely. What is the best course of action?
- A. Ignore the behavior and continue working
- B. Report the behavior to the supervisor
- C. Ask the colleague if everything is okay
- D. Discuss the behavior with other colleagues
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a nurse observes a colleague behaving strangely, the best course of action is to report the behavior to the supervisor. Unusual behavior by a healthcare professional could compromise patient safety and should be addressed promptly. Ignoring the behavior (Choice A) could potentially lead to negative outcomes for patients. Asking the colleague directly (Choice C) may not be appropriate if the behavior poses a risk. Discussing the behavior with other colleagues (Choice D) may not directly address the issue and could lead to gossip rather than a resolution.
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