ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B
1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed enalapril. The provider should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Question: When a client with heart failure is prescribed enalapril, monitoring for hyperkalemia is essential. Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can lead to an increase in potassium levels in the blood. This adverse effect can be serious and potentially life-threatening. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because enalapril does not typically cause hypertension, hypokalemia, or hyperglycemia as adverse effects. It's essential for healthcare providers to be vigilant in monitoring potassium levels when clients are on ACE inhibitors like enalapril.
2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client with impaired mobility. Which of the following support devices should the healthcare professional plan to use to prevent the client from developing plantar flexion contractures?
- A. Sheepskin heel pad
- B. Footboard
- C. Trochanter roll
- D. Abduction pillow
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A footboard is the correct choice to prevent plantar flexion contractures by maintaining proper alignment of the feet. Plantar flexion contractures involve the foot pointing downward, and a footboard helps keep the foot in a neutral position. Choice A, the sheepskin heel pad, is used for pressure ulcer prevention and comfort but does not specifically address plantar flexion contractures. Choice C, the trochanter roll, is used for hip positioning, not foot alignment. Choice D, the abduction pillow, is used to maintain proper positioning of the legs but does not directly address plantar flexion contractures.
3. After unsuccessful alternatives, a patient requires restraints. The nurse is reviewing the orders. Which findings indicate to the nurse the order is legal and appropriate for safe care?
- A. The health care provider writes the type and location of the restraint.
- B. The health care provider renews orders for restraints every 24 hours.
- C. The health care provider performs a face-to-face assessment prior to the order.
- D. The health care provider orders restraints PRN (as needed).
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the context of restraining a patient, it is crucial for the health care provider to specify the type and location of the restraint in the order to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient. This information helps guide the nursing staff in the safe application of restraints. Renewing orders every 24 hours ensures that the need for restraints is continually assessed, promoting patient safety. Performing a face-to-face assessment before ordering restraints allows for a thorough evaluation of the patient's condition and the necessity of using restraints. Ordering restraints PRN (as needed) is not appropriate for safe care as it lacks specificity and may lead to inconsistent application and monitoring.
4. The nurse asks a client who is about to have a cardiac catheterization about any allergies. The client states, 'I always get a rash when I eat shellfish.' Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
- A. Attach a wristband indicating the client's allergy
- B. Ask the client if any other foods cause such a reaction
- C. Notify the dietary department of the client's allergy
- D. Notify the provider of the client's allergy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Notifying the provider of the client's shellfish allergy is crucial to prevent a potential reaction from the contrast dye. While attaching a wristband indicating the allergy may be necessary, the priority is to inform the provider. Asking the client about other foods causing a similar reaction or notifying the dietary department, although important, are not the priority in this situation.
5. A patient is receiving a blood transfusion and develops chills, a headache, and low back pain. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Administer acetaminophen
- B. Stop the transfusion
- C. Slow the transfusion rate
- D. Administer antihistamines
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to stop the transfusion (Choice B). The symptoms described - chills, headache, and low back pain - are indicative of a transfusion reaction. The priority action is to immediately stop the transfusion to prevent further complications such as more severe reactions like hemolytic reactions or anaphylaxis. Administering acetaminophen (Choice A) may help with symptoms but does not address the underlying cause. Slowing the transfusion rate (Choice C) may not be sufficient if a serious transfusion reaction is occurring. Administering antihistamines (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; stopping the transfusion takes precedence to ensure patient safety.
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