Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed enalapril. The provider should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Question: When a client with heart failure is prescribed enalapril, monitoring for hyperkalemia is essential. Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can lead to an increase in potassium levels in the blood. This adverse effect can be serious and potentially life-threatening. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because enalapril does not typically cause hypertension, hypokalemia, or hyperglycemia as adverse effects. It's essential for healthcare providers to be vigilant in monitoring potassium levels when clients are on ACE inhibitors like enalapril.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg IV. Available is furosemide 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 4
• D. 5

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the mL needed, divide the total dose by the dose per mL. In this case, 40 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 4 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 4 mL per dose. Choice A, 2 mL, is incorrect because it would only deliver 20 mg of furosemide, which is half the required dose. Choices B and D are also incorrect as they do not provide the accurate amount needed to achieve the 40 mg dosage.

3. A client with severe dyspnea is scheduled for multiple diagnostic tests. Which test should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Administer an echocardiogram first.
• B. Prioritize a chest x-ray for the client.
• C. Prepare the client for a CT scan.
• D. Order an MRI first.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prioritize a chest x-ray for the client. When a client presents with severe dyspnea, a chest x-ray should be prioritized as it helps in assessing the lungs and heart, which are crucial in cases of respiratory distress. Echocardiograms are more focused on assessing heart function and may not provide immediate information needed in cases of dyspnea. CT scans and MRIs are more detailed imaging studies that are not typically the first-line diagnostic tests for severe dyspnea.

4. The nurse has received a report from the emergency department that a patient with tuberculosis will be coming to the unit. Which items will the nurse need to care for this patient?

• A. N95 respirator, gown, gloves, eyewear
• B. Communication signs for droplet precautions
• C. Negative-pressure airflow in room
• D. Communication signs for airborne precautions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Caring for a patient with tuberculosis requires the nurse to use an N95 respirator, gown, gloves, and eyewear to protect against airborne transmission of the disease. Choice B and D are incorrect because while communication signs for precautions are important, the essential items needed for caring for a patient with tuberculosis are personal protective equipment to prevent transmission. Choice C is also incorrect as negative-pressure airflow in the room is a facility-related requirement and not an item carried by the nurse.

5. A nurse is assessing a client's wound dressing and observes a watery red drainage. The nurse should document this drainage as which of the following?

• A. Purulent
• B. Serous
• C. Sanguineous
• D. Serosanguineous

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, serosanguineous. Serosanguineous drainage is thin, watery, and pale red, indicating a mixture of serous fluid and blood. Choice A (purulent) refers to thick, yellow or green drainage indicating infection. Choice B (serous) is thin, clear drainage. Choice C (sanguineous) is bright red, indicating fresh bleeding.

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