a nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed enalapril the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following advers
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed enalapril. The provider should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Question: When a client with heart failure is prescribed enalapril, monitoring for hyperkalemia is essential. Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can lead to an increase in potassium levels in the blood. This adverse effect can be serious and potentially life-threatening. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because enalapril does not typically cause hypertension, hypokalemia, or hyperglycemia as adverse effects. It's essential for healthcare providers to be vigilant in monitoring potassium levels when clients are on ACE inhibitors like enalapril.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the lab results of a client with liver disease. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated ammonia levels in a client with liver disease can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, requiring immediate intervention. Ammonia is a neurotoxin that can cause cognitive impairment and altered mental status. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice A) are common in liver disease but do not require immediate intervention. Low albumin levels (Choice B) and low hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are also common in liver disease but do not pose an immediate threat compared to elevated ammonia levels.

3. A client with HIV-1 starting therapy with ritonavir and zidovudine asks why both medications are necessary. What explanation should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because taking two medications together helps prevent the development of drug resistance in HIV treatment. Choice A is incorrect because the primary goal of combination therapy is not necessarily a faster recovery. Choice B is incorrect as the main purpose of combining medications in HIV treatment is to prevent resistance rather than improving the immune system. Choice D is incorrect because while it is true that the medications may target different parts of the virus, the main reason for using both together is to prevent resistance.

4. What is the most appropriate action for a healthcare provider to take when a patient is at risk for falls?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply a yellow fall risk bracelet to the patient. This action helps alert staff to the patient's increased risk of falling, prompting them to implement appropriate safety measures and precautions. Placing the call light within reach (choice A) is generally important but does not specifically address fall risk. Assisting the patient when ambulating (choice C) is important but may not be sufficient alone to prevent falls. Ensuring the patient's room is well-lit (choice D) is also crucial for patient safety but does not directly address the patient's fall risk status.

5. Which intervention is most effective in preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a postoperative patient?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most effective intervention in preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a postoperative patient is to encourage early ambulation and leg exercises. Early ambulation helps promote circulation, preventing stasis and reducing the risk of blood clot formation. Encouraging the patient to drink plenty of fluids (choice A) is important for overall health but is not the most effective intervention for preventing DVT. Administering anticoagulants (choice C) is a valuable intervention in some cases, but it may not be suitable for all postoperative patients. Applying compression stockings (choice D) can help prevent DVT but is generally not as effective as early ambulation and leg exercises in postoperative patients.

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