ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B
1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed enalapril. The provider should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Question: When a client with heart failure is prescribed enalapril, monitoring for hyperkalemia is essential. Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can lead to an increase in potassium levels in the blood. This adverse effect can be serious and potentially life-threatening. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because enalapril does not typically cause hypertension, hypokalemia, or hyperglycemia as adverse effects. It's essential for healthcare providers to be vigilant in monitoring potassium levels when clients are on ACE inhibitors like enalapril.
2. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor and report to the provider?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Rash on the face
- C. Yellow-tinged vision
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Yellow-tinged vision.' Yellow-tinged vision is a characteristic sign of digoxin toxicity, indicating an overdose of the medication. This visual disturbance is a critical adverse effect that should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent serious complications.\n\nChoice A, 'Increased appetite,' is not typically associated with digoxin use and is not a common adverse effect.\n\nChoice B, 'Rash on the face,' is also not a common adverse effect of digoxin. Skin rash is not a typical manifestation of digoxin toxicity.\n\nChoice D, 'Weight gain,' is not a common adverse effect of digoxin. Weight gain is not a typical symptom of digoxin toxicity and is unlikely to be related to the medication.
3. The healthcare provider is assessing how a patient's pain is affecting mobility. Which assessment question is most appropriate?
- A. What activities, if any, has your pain prevented you from doing?
- B. When does your pain medication typically take effect on your pain?
- C. Would you please rate your pain on a scale from 0 to 10 for me?
- D. Have you considered working with a physical therapist?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate assessment question in this scenario is asking the patient, 'What activities, if any, has your pain prevented you from doing?' This question helps the healthcare provider understand how pain is impacting the patient's daily activities and mobility, providing valuable insight into the limitations caused by the pain. Choice B focuses on pain medication effectiveness, which is not directly related to mobility assessment. Choice C aims at pain intensity assessment but does not directly address mobility issues. Choice D suggests a solution rather than gathering information about the current impact of pain on mobility.
4. Which action by a nurse demonstrates effective communication with a patient?
- A. Providing the patient with written information about their care.
- B. Maintaining eye contact and listening actively to the patient.
- C. Using medical jargon to explain the patient's condition.
- D. Speaking with the patient in a hurried manner to save time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Maintaining eye contact and actively listening to the patient is crucial in effective communication as it helps build rapport, shows empathy, and ensures that the patient feels heard and understood. Providing written information can be helpful, but the direct interaction is essential for effective communication. Using medical jargon may confuse the patient instead of clarifying their condition. Speaking hurriedly can make the patient feel rushed and not valued, hindering effective communication.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following outcomes indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Improvement in visual acuity
- B. Decreased respiratory rate
- C. Weight loss of 1.36 kg (3 lb) in 24 hours
- D. Increased urinary output
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output is the desired outcome when administering furosemide to a client with heart failure. Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes the excretion of excess fluids from the body, which helps in reducing fluid overload, a common symptom of heart failure. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the action of furosemide in treating heart failure. Visual acuity improvement, decreased respiratory rate, and rapid weight loss are not typical indicators of furosemide effectiveness in managing heart failure.
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