a nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed enalapril the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following advers
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed enalapril. The provider should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Question: When a client with heart failure is prescribed enalapril, monitoring for hyperkalemia is essential. Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can lead to an increase in potassium levels in the blood. This adverse effect can be serious and potentially life-threatening. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because enalapril does not typically cause hypertension, hypokalemia, or hyperglycemia as adverse effects. It's essential for healthcare providers to be vigilant in monitoring potassium levels when clients are on ACE inhibitors like enalapril.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following lab values indicates a therapeutic response to the therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 70 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most sensitive test to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic aPTT range for a client receiving heparin is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of a therapeutic response to heparin therapy. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not indicate the therapeutic response to heparin therapy. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.

3. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for amoxicillin clavulanate to treat pharyngitis. Which statement indicates understanding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client should never double the dose if a dose is missed. This can lead to an overdose, which can cause serious adverse effects. Instead, the client should take the next dose as scheduled or consult the provider for guidance.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who requires total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse take when finding that the TPN solution is infusing too rapidly?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when finding that the TPN solution is infusing too rapidly is to stop the TPN infusion. This is crucial to prevent fluid overload and ensure the client's safety. Sitting the client upright (Choice A) or turning the client on their left side (Choice C) are not appropriate responses to a rapidly infusing TPN solution and do not address the immediate issue of preventing complications from the rapid infusion. Adding insulin to the TPN infusion (Choice D) is not indicated unless specifically prescribed by the healthcare provider for the client's condition. Therefore, the priority action is to stop the TPN infusion to prevent potential harm.

5. A community health nurse is reviewing primary prevention strategies for West Nile virus with a group of clients in a rural health clinic. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Eliminate areas of standing water.' This is an essential primary prevention strategy for West Nile virus as it helps prevent the breeding of mosquitoes that spread the virus. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding exposure to deer ticks is more relevant for Lyme disease, using a respiratory mask when cleaning bird coops is not a primary prevention strategy for West Nile virus, and planning outdoor activities after dusk does not directly address the prevention of West Nile virus transmission.

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