Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI) and is prescribed ciprofloxacin. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for and report which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Tinnitus.
• B. Photosensitivity.
• C. Urinary frequency.
• D. Insomnia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Photosensitivity. Ciprofloxacin, an antibiotic commonly used to treat UTIs, can cause photosensitivity as an adverse effect. This reaction makes the skin more sensitive to sunlight, potentially leading to severe sunburns or skin damage. It is crucial for the client to be aware of this adverse effect to take precautions and report any signs of photosensitivity promptly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because tinnitus, urinary frequency, and insomnia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use. While urinary frequency might be a symptom of UTI, it is not an adverse effect of the medication itself.

2. Which lab value is critical to monitor in patients receiving warfarin therapy?

• A. Monitor INR
• B. Monitor potassium levels
• C. Monitor platelet count
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial to monitor in patients receiving warfarin therapy. INR measures the blood's ability to clot and is used to ensure that patients are within the therapeutic range for warfarin therapy. This is important to prevent both clotting disorders and bleeding complications. Monitoring potassium levels (choice B) is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Platelet count (choice C) and sodium levels (choice D) are important parameters but are not as critical to monitor specifically for patients on warfarin therapy.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serum calcium level of 8 mg/dL.
• B. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.
• C. Heart rate of 110/min.
• D. Temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A heart rate of 110/min is elevated and may indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication following a thyroidectomy. Elevated heart rate can be a sign of hypocalcemia due to the close relationship between calcium levels and cardiac function. Option A, serum calcium level of 8 mg/dL, is within the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and would not be a cause for concern post-thyroidectomy. Option B, urine output of 60 mL/hr, is within the normal range for urine output and not typically a priority finding post-thyroidectomy. Option D, a temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F), is slightly elevated but not a critical finding post-thyroidectomy unless accompanied by other symptoms.

4. A nurse manager is planning to promote client advocacy among staff in a medical unit. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage staff to implement the principle of paternalism when a client is having difficulty making a choice
• B. Tell staff to explain procedures to clients before obtaining informed consent
• C. Instruct unit staff to share personal experiences to help clients make decisions
• D. Develop a system for staff members to report safety concerns in the client care environment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Developing a system for staff members to report safety concerns in the client care environment is crucial to promoting client advocacy and ensuring client safety. This action empowers staff to identify and address potential safety issues, ultimately enhancing the quality of care provided. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A suggests implementing paternalism, which involves making decisions for clients without their input, contradicting the principles of client advocacy. Choice B focuses on informed consent procedures, which are important but do not directly relate to promoting client advocacy among staff. Choice C, sharing personal experiences, may not always align with professional boundaries and can potentially bias clients' decision-making processes.

5. What is the initial step in managing a suspected pulmonary embolism in a patient?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Reposition the patient
• C. Administer anticoagulants
• D. Administer IV fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the initial step in managing a suspected pulmonary embolism. Oxygen therapy is crucial to improve oxygenation levels in the blood when there is a suspected blockage in the pulmonary artery. Administering anticoagulants, although important in the treatment of pulmonary embolism, is not the first step as ensuring adequate oxygen supply takes precedence. Repositioning the patient or administering IV fluids are not the primary interventions for a suspected pulmonary embolism and are not as essential as providing oxygen support.

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