ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client has a new prescription for Spironolactone. Which of the following instructions should be provided?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Avoid potassium-rich foods.
- C. Increase your intake of sodium.
- D. Monitor your blood pressure daily.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid potassium-rich foods.' Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, and consuming foods high in potassium can lead to hyperkalemia, a potential side effect of the medication. Therefore, the client should be advised to avoid potassium-rich foods to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Spironolactone with food is not necessary for its effectiveness. Increasing sodium intake is not typically recommended with Spironolactone therapy. While monitoring blood pressure is important, it is not specifically related to the use of Spironolactone.
2. A hospitalized client receiving IV heparin for a deep-vein thrombosis begins vomiting blood. After the heparin has been stopped, which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?
- A. Vitamin K1
- B. Atropine
- C. Protamine
- D. Calcium gluconate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing a serious complication of heparin therapy, likely due to heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Protamine is the antidote for heparin and can reverse its anticoagulant effects. It is essential to administer protamine promptly to counteract the effects of heparin and manage the bleeding. Vitamin K1 is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Atropine is used to treat bradycardia or some types of poisoning. Calcium gluconate is used to manage hyperkalemia or calcium channel blocker toxicity, not to reverse heparin's effects.
3. What is the expected pharmacological action of propranolol?
- A. Block stimulation of beta1 receptors
- B. Alter water and electrolyte transport in the large intestine
- C. Block stimulation of beta2 receptors
- D. Both A and C are correct
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Propranolol exerts its pharmacological action by blocking stimulation of both beta1 and beta2 receptors. By doing so, it leads to decreased heart rate and blood pressure. Therefore, both options A and C are correct as propranolol affects both types of beta receptors. Choice B is incorrect as propranolol does not alter water and electrolyte transport in the large intestine.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Filgrastim for the first time to a client who has just undergone a bone marrow transplant. Which of the following interventions is appropriate?
- A. Administer subcutaneously in a large muscle mass to prevent injury.
- B. Ensure that the medication is kept at room temperature until just prior to administration.
- C. Invert vial gently to mix well before withdrawing dose.
- D. Discard vial after removing one dose of the medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention when preparing to administer Filgrastim is to discard the vial after removing one dose of the medication. This practice helps prevent contamination and ensures the medication's effectiveness. Reusing the vial can lead to contamination and compromise the sterility of the medication, putting the client at risk. Therefore, it is crucial to follow proper aseptic technique and discard the vial after withdrawing the prescribed dose.
5. A client has an infection and a prescription for gentamicin intermittent IV bolus every 8 hr. A peak and trough is required with the next dose. Which of the following actions should be taken to obtain an accurate gentamicin serum level?
- A. Draw a trough level immediately prior to administering the medication and a peak level 30 min after the dose.
- B. Draw a peak level 90 min prior to administering the medication and a trough level 90 min after the dose.
- C. Draw a trough level immediately prior to administering the medication and a peak level 30 min after the dose.
- D. Draw a peak level at 0900 and a trough level at 2100.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To obtain an accurate gentamicin serum level, the trough should be drawn immediately before administering the medication, and the peak level should be drawn 30 minutes after the dose. This timing allows for the assessment of the lowest and highest drug concentrations in the bloodstream, ensuring therapeutic levels are achieved while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Choice A is correct as it follows this timing protocol. Choices B and D have incorrect timing for peak and trough levels, which would not provide an accurate representation of the drug's concentration in the bloodstream.
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