ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client has a new prescription for Spironolactone. Which of the following instructions should be provided?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Avoid potassium-rich foods.
- C. Increase your intake of sodium.
- D. Monitor your blood pressure daily.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid potassium-rich foods.' Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, and consuming foods high in potassium can lead to hyperkalemia, a potential side effect of the medication. Therefore, the client should be advised to avoid potassium-rich foods to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Spironolactone with food is not necessary for its effectiveness. Increasing sodium intake is not typically recommended with Spironolactone therapy. While monitoring blood pressure is important, it is not specifically related to the use of Spironolactone.
2. A client has a new prescription for Buspirone to treat Anxiety. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Expect optimal therapeutic effects within 24 hours.
- C. Take this medication as needed for anxiety.
- D. This medication has a low risk for dependency.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When educating a client about Buspirone, the nurse should highlight that this medication has a low risk for physical or psychological dependence or tolerance. This information is crucial for the client to understand the safety profile of Buspirone compared to other medications used for anxiety.
3. A client is being taught about Terbutaline. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
- A. This medication will stop my contractions.
- B. This medication will prevent vaginal bleeding.
- C. This medication will promote blood flow to my baby.
- D. This medication will increase my prostaglandin production.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Terbutaline works by blocking beta2-adrenergic receptors, leading to uterine smooth muscle relaxation and stopping contractions. Therefore, the client demonstrating understanding by recognizing that the medication will stop contractions is the most accurate response. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Terbutaline is primarily used to inhibit contractions in preterm labor, not prevent vaginal bleeding, promote blood flow to the baby, or increase prostaglandin production.
4. A healthcare professional is planning to administer subcutaneous enoxaparin 40 mg using a prefilled syringe of Enoxaparin 40 mg/0.4 mL to an adult client following hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?
- A. Expel the air bubble from the prefilled syringe before injecting.
- B. Insert the needle completely into the client's tissue.
- C. Administer the injection in the client's thigh.
- D. Aspirate carefully after inserting the needle into the client's skin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B. When administering enoxaparin, it is essential to insert the needle completely into the client's tissue to ensure a deep subcutaneous injection. This method helps in the appropriate delivery of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because expelling air bubbles is not necessary with subcutaneous injections and may lead to medication loss. Choice C is incorrect as enoxaparin is usually administered in the abdomen, not the thigh. Choice D is incorrect as aspiration is not recommended for subcutaneous injections to avoid trauma or bleeding.
5. Why is it important to monitor ins and outs in patients using ACE inhibitors?
- A. To assess for renal impairment
- B. To ensure the patient is receiving adequate fluid intake
- C. To assess the patient for potential heart failure
- D. To assess for NSAID use
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is crucial to monitor ins and outs in patients using ACE inhibitors to assess for renal impairment. ACE inhibitors can affect renal function, potentially leading to renal impairment. Monitoring the patient's fluid balance helps in early recognition of any renal issues and allows for timely interventions to prevent complications.
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