ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client has a new prescription for Spironolactone. Which of the following instructions should be provided?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Avoid potassium-rich foods.
- C. Increase your intake of sodium.
- D. Monitor your blood pressure daily.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid potassium-rich foods.' Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, and consuming foods high in potassium can lead to hyperkalemia, a potential side effect of the medication. Therefore, the client should be advised to avoid potassium-rich foods to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Spironolactone with food is not necessary for its effectiveness. Increasing sodium intake is not typically recommended with Spironolactone therapy. While monitoring blood pressure is important, it is not specifically related to the use of Spironolactone.
2. A client is prescribed gentamicin for an infection. Which finding indicates a potential adverse reaction to the medication?
- A. Blood pressure 160/90 mm Hg
- B. Presence of red blood cells in the urine
- C. Urine output of 35 mL/hr
- D. Respiratory rate of 22/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The presence of red blood cells in the urine is a significant finding that can indicate nephrotoxicity, a potential adverse effect of gentamicin. Nephrotoxicity can lead to kidney damage, and monitoring for this adverse reaction is crucial during gentamicin therapy. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with gentamicin adverse reactions. Decreased urine output (Choice C) may suggest kidney impairment but is not as specific as the presence of red blood cells in the urine. Respiratory rate (Choice D) is not directly related to potential adverse reactions to gentamicin.
3. Which of the following drugs has a therapeutic effect that prevents thromboembolic events?
- A. Warfarin
- B. Amlodipine
- C. Nitroglycerin
- D. Clopidogrel
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that helps prevent thromboembolic events by inhibiting the formation of blood clots. It is commonly used to reduce the risk of strokes or heart attacks in patients at risk for thrombosis.
4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who is prescribed Digoxin. Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to assess for potential toxicity?
- A. Sodium
- B. Potassium
- C. Magnesium
- D. Calcium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's potassium levels. Hypokalemia can increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Potassium levels should be closely monitored to prevent adverse effects. Monitoring sodium levels is not directly related to Digoxin toxicity. While magnesium and calcium are important electrolytes, potassium levels are more critical for Digoxin toxicity assessment.
5. A client is prescribed Amlodipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Peripheral edema
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker known to cause peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for swelling, particularly in the lower extremities, as it can indicate the development of this side effect. Choice A, Tachycardia, is not a common adverse effect of Amlodipine. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is not typically associated with Amlodipine use. Choice D, Hypertension, is the condition Amlodipine is prescribed to treat, not an adverse effect of the medication.
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