ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. A patient is being cared for by a nurse who has a history of angina and is experiencing chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
- B. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
- C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a patient with a history of angina experiencing chest pain, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain a 12-lead ECG. This helps in assessing for myocardial infarction, a serious condition that requires immediate attention. Administering oxygen, nitroglycerin, or notifying the healthcare provider can be important interventions but obtaining the ECG comes first to determine the presence of myocardial infarction and guide further management.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to breathe deeply and cough every 4 hours.
- B. Provide a diet that is high in carbohydrates and low in protein.
- C. Teach the client pursed-lip breathing technique.
- D. Restrict the client's fluid intake to 1,500 mL per day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Teach the client pursed-lip breathing technique. Pursed-lip breathing helps clients with COPD improve oxygenation and reduce shortness of breath. Choice A is incorrect because deep breathing and coughing are not recommended every 4 hours for clients with COPD. Choice B is incorrect because a diet high in carbohydrates and low in protein is not specifically indicated for COPD. Choice D is incorrect because fluid restriction is not a standard intervention for COPD unless the client has comorbid conditions that necessitate it.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
- B. Temperature of 37.8°C (100°F).
- C. Urine output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours.
- D. WBC count of 15,000/mm³.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. An elevated WBC count can indicate a potential infection, especially in a postoperative client. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are common occurrences in postoperative clients and may not necessarily indicate a severe issue. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is a normal finding in the immediate postoperative period. A temperature of 37.8°C (100°F) can be a mild fever, which is common postoperatively due to the body's response to tissue injury. Urine output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours may be within normal limits for a postoperative client, especially if they are still recovering from anesthesia.
4. A client is being taught how to perform self-catheterization. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Clean the catheter with alcohol after each use.
- B. Perform self-catheterization while sitting on the toilet.
- C. Use a new catheter each time you perform self-catheterization.
- D. Lubricate the catheter tip with petroleum jelly before insertion.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use a new catheter each time you perform self-catheterization.' It is essential to use a new, sterile catheter each time to prevent infection during the procedure. Choice A is incorrect because cleaning the catheter with alcohol may not be sufficient to prevent infection. Choice B is incorrect because self-catheterization is typically done in a clean, private area, not necessarily on the toilet. Choice D is incorrect because lubricating the catheter tip with petroleum jelly is a common practice but not as crucial as using a new catheter each time to prevent infection.
5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is at risk for osteoporosis. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Broccoli
- B. Bananas
- C. Cheddar cheese
- D. Whole wheat bread
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is an excellent source of calcium, which is essential for bone health. Calcium helps strengthen bones and reduces the risk of osteoporosis. Broccoli (choice A) is also a good source of calcium but not as high as cheddar cheese. Bananas (choice B) and whole wheat bread (choice D) do not provide significant amounts of calcium and are not as effective in preventing osteoporosis as cheddar cheese.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access