a nurse is assessing a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 30 mgdl which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect
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ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet

1. A nurse is assessing a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 30 mg/dl. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Jitteriness is a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns. Choice A, 'Loose stools,' is not typically associated with hypoglycemia in newborns. Choice C, 'Hypertonia,' is not a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns; instead, hypotonia may be observed. Choice D, 'Abdominal distention,' is not a typical manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns.

2. A nurse manager is planning to teach staff about critical pathways. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Critical pathways are structured, multi-disciplinary plans of care designed to decrease health care costs and improve outcomes by standardizing and streamlining processes. Choice A is incorrect because critical pathways have specific timeframes for completion. Choice C is incorrect as patients are expected to follow the critical pathway without deviations to achieve optimal outcomes. Choice D is incorrect because budgets do not create critical pathways; rather, they are based on clinical guidelines and best practices.

3. What is the appropriate action when a patient experiences an allergic reaction to a medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for a severe allergic reaction as it helps to constrict blood vessels, increase heart rate, and open airways, thereby improving breathing and circulation. Discontinuing the medication may not be sufficient to manage a severe allergic reaction as the allergen is already in the patient's system. Corticosteroids and antihistamines can be considered as complementary treatments but are not the primary immediate intervention required for a severe allergic reaction.

4. What is the most critical lab value to monitor for a patient on heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT levels. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, as it reflects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range of heparin, minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Platelet count (choice B) is important to assess for potential heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor during heparin therapy. INR levels (choice C) are monitored in patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Sodium levels (choice D) are not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who is 6 hours postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In caring for a client 6 hours postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty, it is crucial to keep the leg abductor pillow in place while in bed. This intervention helps prevent hip dislocation by maintaining proper alignment and stability of the hip joint. Placing a wedge under the client's affected leg (Choice A) may not provide adequate support and could potentially compromise the surgical site. Keeping the client's hip flexed at a 90° angle (Choice B) or positioning the client with the legs extended and the hip externally rotated (Choice C) are not recommended post total hip arthroplasty as they may increase the risk of hip dislocation.

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