Nursing Elites

1. A male client recently started taking Haloperidol. Which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the provider?

• A. Shuffling gait
• B. Neck spasms
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Impotence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck spasms are an indication of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that can quickly progress to a crisis situation. Immediate medical attention is necessary to prevent complications. Shuffling gait and drowsiness are common side effects of Haloperidol but are not as urgent as neck spasms. Impotence is not typically associated with Haloperidol use. Therefore, identifying neck spasms as the priority finding is crucial for the client's safety.

2. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Sulfasalazine, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Expect orange discoloration of urine and skin.
• B. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
• C. Take the medication with a full glass of milk.
• D. Expect your stools to be black and tarry.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when teaching a client with a new prescription for Sulfasalazine is to expect orange discoloration of urine and skin. Sulfasalazine can cause this harmless side effect, which does not necessitate discontinuation of the medication. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about this expected outcome to prevent unnecessary concern or discontinuation of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of high-sodium foods is not recommended with Sulfasalazine, as it can worsen certain side effects. Taking the medication with a full glass of milk is not necessary for Sulfasalazine administration. Expecting stools to be black and tarry is not an expected side effect of Sulfasalazine.

3. A client with end-stage cancer receiving Morphine is prescribed Methylnaltrexone. The client's daughter asks why the provider prescribed Methylnaltrexone. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. The medication will increase your mother's respirations.
• B. The medication will prevent dependence on the Morphine.
• C. The medication will relieve your mother's constipation.
• D. The medication works with the Morphine to increase pain relief.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is C: 'The medication will relieve your mother's constipation.' Methylnaltrexone is an opioid antagonist used to treat severe constipation unrelieved by laxatives in opioid-dependent clients. It works by blocking the mu opioid receptors in the GI tract, which helps alleviate constipation without affecting pain relief or causing withdrawal symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Methylnaltrexone's primary action is related to managing constipation rather than increasing respirations, preventing dependence on Morphine, or enhancing pain relief when used alongside Morphine.

4. A healthcare provider is educating a group of new parents about immunizations. The provider should instruct the parents that the series for which of the following vaccines is completed prior to the first birthday?

• A. Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine
• B. Meningococcal conjugate vaccine
• C. Varicella vaccine
• D. Rotavirus vaccine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Rotavirus vaccine. The series for the Rotavirus vaccine is completed prior to the first birthday as it is only administered to infants less than 8 months of age. This vaccine provides protection against severe diarrhea and vomiting caused by rotavirus infection, which is common in infants and young children. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the series for these vaccines extends beyond the first birthday. Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine and Meningococcal conjugate vaccine are typically given in multiple doses up to 2 years of age, while the Varicella vaccine is usually administered between 12 to 15 months of age.

5. A client with brain cancer and headaches is prescribed dexamethasone. What is the purpose of this adjuvant medication?

• A. To decrease inflammation and swelling
• B. To improve concentration
• C. To induce sedation
• D. To treat depression

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dexamethasone, a glucocorticoid, is indicated for clients with brain cancer to decrease inflammation and swelling. It helps reduce cerebral edema and relieve pressure caused by the tumor, ultimately alleviating headaches. The purpose of prescribing dexamethasone in this case is not to improve concentration (choice B), induce sedation (choice C), or treat depression (choice D). Methylphenidate, a stimulant, is used for conditions like ADHD, not for brain cancer. Hydroxyzine, an antihistamine, is primarily used for anxiety and itching, not for brain cancer. Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, is used for conditions like depression and neuropathic pain, not specifically for brain cancer-related headaches.

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