a nurse is assessing a male client who recently began taking haloperidol which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the prov
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A male client recently started taking Haloperidol. Which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck spasms are an indication of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that can quickly progress to a crisis situation. Immediate medical attention is necessary to prevent complications. Shuffling gait and drowsiness are common side effects of Haloperidol but are not as urgent as neck spasms. Impotence is not typically associated with Haloperidol use. Therefore, identifying neck spasms as the priority finding is crucial for the client's safety.

2. A client has a new prescription for Lithium Carbonate. When teaching the client about ways to prevent Lithium toxicity, what advice should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should advise the client to limit aerobic activity in hot weather to prevent sodium/water depletion, which can increase the risk for Lithium toxicity. Excessive sweating and fluid loss can lead to dehydration and changes in lithium levels, potentially resulting in toxicity. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Avoiding acetaminophen for headaches is not directly related to Lithium toxicity. Restricting sodium intake and decreasing fluid intake can lead to increased lithium levels and toxicity, so these are not recommended actions.

3. What is a common side effect of Albuterol?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A common side effect of Albuterol is paradoxical bronchospasm, a condition where the airways become more constricted instead of relaxing. This can be a serious adverse reaction to the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not commonly associated with Albuterol use. Diarrhea and seizures are not typically reported side effects of Albuterol, and vision loss is not a recognized side effect of this medication.

4. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is monitoring serum electrolytes for four older adult clients who take digoxin. Which of the following electrolyte values increases a client's risk for Digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.4 mEq/L. Potassium 3.4 mEq/L is below the expected reference range and puts a client at risk for digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels can lead to fatal dysrhythmias, especially in older clients taking Digoxin, as potassium plays a crucial role in the heart's electrical activity. Choices A and B are related to calcium levels, which do not directly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Choice D, Potassium 4.8 mEq/L, is within the expected reference range and would not increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity.

5. When teaching parents of a school-age child about transdermal Methylphenidate, which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering transdermal Methylphenidate, the patch should be left on for 9 hours per day to ensure optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. This duration helps maintain a consistent level of the drug in the child's system. Incorrect options: A) Applying one patch once per day is not the correct dosing regimen for transdermal Methylphenidate. C) The patch should not be applied to the child's waistline as it is recommended to apply it to a clean, dry area. D) Using the opened tray within 6 months is not directly related to the administration of transdermal Methylphenidate.

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