Nursing Elites

1. A male client recently started taking Haloperidol. Which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the provider?

• A. Shuffling gait
• B. Neck spasms
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Impotence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck spasms are an indication of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that can quickly progress to a crisis situation. Immediate medical attention is necessary to prevent complications. Shuffling gait and drowsiness are common side effects of Haloperidol but are not as urgent as neck spasms. Impotence is not typically associated with Haloperidol use. Therefore, identifying neck spasms as the priority finding is crucial for the client's safety.

2. When starting therapy with Lisinopril, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Tinnitus
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Cough
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When starting therapy with Lisinopril, a client should be instructed to monitor for a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes this cough as an adverse effect. It is important for the client to monitor for this symptom and notify their healthcare provider if it occurs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tinnitus, diarrhea, and weight gain are not commonly associated adverse effects of Lisinopril.

3. When caring for a client prescribed Lithium, which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess for potential toxicity?

• A. Serum sodium
• B. Serum lithium
• C. Serum potassium
• D. Serum calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's serum lithium levels to ensure they are within the therapeutic range and to assess for potential toxicity. Monitoring serum lithium levels is crucial because lithium has a narrow therapeutic range, and levels outside this range can lead to toxicity, which can be life-threatening. Therefore, regular monitoring is essential to prevent adverse effects and ensure the medication's effectiveness.

4. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following adverse effects should the client monitor for and report to the provider?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Pedal edema
• C. Bruising
• D. Yellow-tinged vision

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Yellow-tinged vision. Yellow-tinged vision is a potential adverse effect of Digoxin and may indicate toxicity. Clients should be instructed to report this symptom promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent complications. Dry cough (choice A) is not typically associated with Digoxin. Pedal edema (choice B) is more commonly seen with heart failure but is not a direct adverse effect of Digoxin. Bruising (choice C) is not a common adverse effect of Digoxin.

5. A client reports using over-the-counter calcium carbonate antacid. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse make about taking this medication?

• A. Decrease bulk in the diet to counteract the adverse effect of diarrhea.
• B. Take the medication with dairy products to increase absorption.
• C. Reduce sodium intake.
• D. Drink a glass of water after taking the medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct recommendation for taking calcium carbonate antacid is to drink a glass of water after taking the medication. This practice enhances the effectiveness of the antacid by promoting its dissolution and absorption in the stomach, providing relief from symptoms of heartburn and indigestion. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not relevant as calcium carbonate antacid does not typically cause diarrhea. Choice B is inaccurate as taking calcium carbonate with dairy products may decrease its absorption due to the presence of calcium in both sources. Choice C is unrelated to the administration of calcium carbonate antacid.

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