Nursing Elites

1. A male client recently started taking Haloperidol. Which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the provider?

• A. Shuffling gait
• B. Neck spasms
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Impotence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck spasms are an indication of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that can quickly progress to a crisis situation. Immediate medical attention is necessary to prevent complications. Shuffling gait and drowsiness are common side effects of Haloperidol but are not as urgent as neck spasms. Impotence is not typically associated with Haloperidol use. Therefore, identifying neck spasms as the priority finding is crucial for the client's safety.

2. A nurse is providing teaching for a male client who has Schizophrenia and is taking Risperidone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Add extra snacks to your diet to prevent weight loss.
• B. Notify the provider if you develop breast enlargement.
• C. You may begin to have mild seizures while taking this medication.
• D. This medication is likely to increase your libido.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Notify the provider if you develop breast enlargement.' Gynecomastia (breast enlargement) and galactorrhea can occur due to an increase in prolactin levels while taking risperidone. The client should inform the provider if these manifestations occur. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Adding extra snacks to the diet to prevent weight loss is not a specific instruction related to risperidone. Seizures are not a common side effect of risperidone, so the statement about mild seizures is inaccurate. Risperidone is more likely to cause sexual side effects like erectile dysfunction rather than increasing libido, making choice D incorrect.

3. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who is prescribed Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Weight gain
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A persistent dry cough is a common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause a non-productive cough due to its effect on bradykinin levels. The client should be advised to report this symptom to their healthcare provider to consider alternative treatments. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, diarrhea, and nausea are not typically associated with Enalapril use.

4. What is the appropriate medication to administer for a suspected opioid overdose in a patient who comes to the hospital?

• A. Exenatide
• B. Naloxone
• C. Heparin
• D. Tolvaptan

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Naloxone. Naloxone is the drug of choice for managing opioid overdoses as it competitively antagonizes opioid receptors, reversing the respiratory depression and sedation caused by opioids. It is crucial in the emergency treatment of opioid overdose to prevent fatal outcomes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Exenatide is a medication used to treat diabetes, heparin is an anticoagulant, and tolvaptan is a diuretic. None of these medications are indicated for the management of opioid overdose.

5. A child with Cystic Fibrosis has a new prescription for Acetylcysteine. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the instructions?

• A. Expect this medication to suppress your cough.
• B. Expect this medication to smell like rotten eggs.
• C. Expect this medication to cause euphoria.
• D. Expect this medication to turn your urine orange.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Expect this medication to smell like rotten eggs.' Acetylcysteine contains sulfur, which gives it a characteristic rotten-egg odor. This smell is normal and expected when using this medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Acetylcysteine is not used to suppress cough, cause euphoria, or turn urine orange.

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