Nursing Elites

1. A male client recently started taking Haloperidol. Which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the provider?

• A. Shuffling gait
• B. Neck spasms
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Impotence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck spasms are an indication of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that can quickly progress to a crisis situation. Immediate medical attention is necessary to prevent complications. Shuffling gait and drowsiness are common side effects of Haloperidol but are not as urgent as neck spasms. Impotence is not typically associated with Haloperidol use. Therefore, identifying neck spasms as the priority finding is crucial for the client's safety.

2. What is the expected outcome of Valproate therapy?

• A. Decreased fever
• B. Decreased sense of anxiety
• C. Decreased blood pressure
• D. Decreased seizure activity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased seizure activity. Valproate is commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy to help control and reduce seizure frequency. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Valproate is not primarily used to treat fever, anxiety, or blood pressure issues.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to initiate IV therapy for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the professional plan to take?

• A. Use a blood pressure cuff to distend the veins.
• B. Select the antecubital area to insert the IV catheter.
• C. Distend the veins by using a blood pressure cuff.
• D. Direct the client to lower his arm below his heart.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The healthcare professional should distend the veins using a blood pressure cuff to make the veins more visible and accessible for IV catheter insertion. This technique helps reduce the risk of overfilling the vein, which can lead to complications such as hematoma formation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while selecting the antecubital area is often appropriate for IV insertion in adults, the key action in this scenario is to distend the veins using a blood pressure cuff to facilitate the procedure.

4. What does it mean when a medication has a half-life?

• A. It only lasts for 30 minutes after the medication is given
• B. How long it takes for half of the dose to be eliminated from the bloodstream
• C. It is the peak of how effective the medicine is
• D. Drug is greatly reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a medication has a half-life, it refers to the time it takes for half of the dose to be eliminated from the bloodstream. This parameter is crucial in understanding the duration of action and dosing intervals for medications in clinical practice. Choice A is incorrect as the half-life is not about how long the medication lasts but about elimination from the body. Choice C is incorrect because the half-life is not about the peak effectiveness of the medicine. Choice D is incorrect as it does not accurately define the concept of half-life.

5. A client has been prescribed Prednisone for asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take this medication with food to prevent nausea.
• B. Take this medication at bedtime to reduce drowsiness.
• C. Take this medication in the morning to reduce insomnia.
• D. Avoid sudden changes in position.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prednisone is best taken in the morning to reduce the risk of insomnia, a common side effect of corticosteroids. Instructing the client to take the medication in the morning aligns with the goal of minimizing the impact of insomnia, which can disrupt sleep patterns and affect overall well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking Prednisone with food does not primarily focus on preventing nausea; taking it at bedtime does not primarily reduce drowsiness, and avoiding sudden changes in position is not a specific instruction related to Prednisone use for asthma.

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