a nurse is assessing a male client who recently began taking haloperidol which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the prov
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A male client recently started taking Haloperidol. Which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck spasms are an indication of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that can quickly progress to a crisis situation. Immediate medical attention is necessary to prevent complications. Shuffling gait and drowsiness are common side effects of Haloperidol but are not as urgent as neck spasms. Impotence is not typically associated with Haloperidol use. Therefore, identifying neck spasms as the priority finding is crucial for the client's safety.

2. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide to treat heart failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's potassium levels when taking Furosemide because the medication can lead to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is a potential side effect of Furosemide, a loop diuretic, due to increased potassium excretion in the urine. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias associated with low potassium levels. Therefore, choices B (Sodium level), C (Hemoglobin A1C), and D (BUN) are incorrect as they are not directly influenced by Furosemide therapy for heart failure.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a transfusion of 300 mL of pooled platelets for a client with severe Thrombocytopenia. How should the healthcare professional plan to administer the transfusion over which of the following time frames?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Platelets are fragile components that must be administered promptly to minimize the risk of clumping. The correct administration time for platelets is within 15 to 30 minutes per unit to maintain their therapeutic effectiveness and reduce adverse effects. Administering platelets over longer time frames can lead to decreased efficacy and potential harm to the patient. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer the 300 mL of pooled platelets within 30 minutes per unit.

4. Potassium-sparing diuretics primarily affect which part of the kidney?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Potassium-sparing diuretics exert their primary effects on the distal convoluted tubule in the kidney. By acting on this specific part of the nephron, these diuretics promote sodium excretion while sparing potassium, thus helping to maintain potassium levels in the body. This mechanism differs from other diuretics that may cause potassium loss as a side effect. Understanding the site of action of potassium-sparing diuretics is crucial in clinical practice for managing conditions like hypertension and edema where diuresis is necessary without the risk of hypokalemia.

5. While providing an Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, the patient asks what the action of the drug is. As a healthcare provider, you explain that the action of an ACE inhibitor is:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, and by inhibiting its formation, ACE inhibitors help dilate blood vessels, reduce blood pressure, and decrease the workload on the heart. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of diuretics, not ACE inhibitors. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to the action of beta-blockers, not ACE inhibitors. Choice D is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of antidiabetic medications, not ACE inhibitors.

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