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ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) and notices clots in the client's urinary catheter and decreased urinary output. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Administer an antispasmodic
B. Irrigate the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride irrigation
C. Apply gentle manual pressure to the bladder
D. Clamp the catheter tubing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should irrigate the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride irrigation. This action helps clear the clots in the catheter and restore proper urine flow after a TURP. Administering an antispasmodic (Choice A) is not the appropriate action for clots in the catheter and decreased urinary output. Applying gentle manual pressure to the bladder (Choice C) or clamping the catheter tubing (Choice D) could potentially worsen the situation by causing bladder distention or preventing urine drainage.

2. What is the most appropriate method for assessing a patient's pain level?

A. Observe the patient's facial expressions.
B. Use a standardized pain scale, such as 0-10.
C. Ask the patient to rate their pain based on their mood.
D. Ask the patient's family members to assess the pain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate method for assessing a patient's pain level is to use a standardized pain scale, such as a 0-10 scale. This method provides an objective and consistent way to measure and communicate the intensity of pain experienced by the patient. Choice A, observing facial expressions, can be subjective and may not always accurately reflect the level of pain. Choice C, asking the patient to rate their pain based on their mood, may be influenced by various factors unrelated to pain. Choice D, involving the patient's family members in assessing the pain, is not ideal as pain is a subjective experience that should be reported by the patient themselves.

3. A healthcare provider is providing a report to a colleague about a client who weighs 210 lb and has a prescription for one-third weight bearing on the right leg. How many kg of weight should the client bear on the right leg?

A. 32 kg
B. 35 kg
C. 40 kg
D. 45 kg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the weight-bearing limit, we first need to convert 210 lbs to kg. To do this, we use the conversion factor 1 lb = 0.453592 kg. So, 210 lbs is equal to 210 * 0.453592 = 95.254 kg. One-third of 95.254 kg is 31.7513 kg, which can be rounded to 32 kg. Therefore, the client should bear 32 kg of weight on the right leg. Choice A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight and the prescribed weight-bearing limit.

4. A nurse is presenting educational materials for a group of middle-aged clients about menopausal hormone therapy following a total hysterectomy. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

A. Take at different times of the day
B. Prevents from having a cerebral hemorrhage
C. Prevents osteoporotic fractures
D. Take an extra dose if missed a day

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct information the nurse should include is that menopausal hormone therapy helps prevent osteoporotic fractures by maintaining bone density. Option A is incorrect as hormone therapy should be taken consistently at the same time each day for optimal effectiveness. Option B is incorrect as menopausal hormone therapy is not primarily aimed at preventing cerebral hemorrhage. Option D is incorrect because taking an extra dose is not recommended if a dose is missed; instead, the missed dose should be taken as soon as remembered, unless it is close to the time for the next dose.

5. The patient experienced a surgical procedure, and Betadine was utilized as the surgical prep. Two days postoperatively, the nurse's assessment indicates that the incision is red and has a small amount of purulent drainage. The patient reports tenderness at the incision site. The patient's temperature is 100.5°F, and the WBC is 10,500/mm³. Which action should the nurse take first?

A. Reevaluate the temperature and white blood cell count in 4 hours.
B. Check which solution was used for skin preparation in surgery.
C. Plan to change the surgical dressing during the shift.
D. Utilize SBAR to notify the primary health care provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient is showing signs of a possible surgical site infection, including redness, purulent drainage, tenderness, elevated temperature, and increased white blood cell count. These symptoms suggest the need for immediate action to address a potential complication. Utilizing SBAR to notify the primary health care provider is crucial as it allows for effective communication of the patient's condition and the need for further assessment and intervention. Reevaluating the temperature and white blood cell count later, checking the solution used for skin preparation, or planning to change the dressing do not address the urgent need for intervention and communication with the healthcare provider.