ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam RN
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes mellitus and is experiencing hyperglycemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Polyuria
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Polyuria is the excessive production of urine and is a common finding in clients with hyperglycemia due to increased glucose levels. High blood sugar levels lead to the body trying to eliminate the excess glucose through urine, resulting in increased urination. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is low blood sugar and is not typically associated with hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) is excessive sweating and is not a direct symptom of hyperglycemia. Tachycardia (choice D) is increased heart rate and is not a primary finding in hyperglycemia.
2. How should a healthcare professional prepare a patient for a colonoscopy?
- A. Provide clear instructions on diet
- B. Explain the procedure in detail
- C. Ensure the patient has an empty stomach
- D. Give a bowel prep solution
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Giving a bowel prep solution is essential to clean out the colon thoroughly before a colonoscopy. This process is crucial as it helps to achieve a clear view of the colon during the procedure. Providing clear instructions on diet (Choice A) and ensuring the patient has an empty stomach (Choice C) are important steps in the preparation process but may not be sufficient on their own to adequately cleanse the colon. Explaining the procedure in detail (Choice B) is helpful for patient education but does not directly contribute to the physical preparation required for a successful colonoscopy.
3. A client with hypertension is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse on managing blood pressure at home. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take medication at bedtime.
- B. Check blood pressure once a week.
- C. Use a blood pressure cuff that fits snugly around the arm.
- D. Stop taking medication once blood pressure is within the normal range.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use a blood pressure cuff that fits snugly around the arm.' Using a properly fitting cuff is essential for accurate blood pressure measurements. Choice A is incorrect because the timing of medication administration should be individualized and not specified in the question. Choice B is incorrect as checking blood pressure once a week may not provide sufficient monitoring for a client with hypertension. Choice D is incorrect because stopping medication abruptly once blood pressure is normal can lead to rebound hypertension and complications.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in patients receiving furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly leads to potassium loss in the urine, causing hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients taking furosemide. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with furosemide use.
5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Massage the affected extremity to promote circulation.
- B. Elevate the affected extremity.
- C. Apply cold packs to the affected extremity.
- D. Perform range-of-motion exercises on the affected extremity.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with DVT is to apply cold packs to the affected extremity. Cold packs can help reduce swelling and pain by constricting blood vessels. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge a clot and worsen the condition. Elevating the affected extremity helps with blood flow but is not the priority intervention for DVT. Performing range-of-motion exercises on the affected extremity can also dislodge a clot and is contraindicated.
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