Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes mellitus and is experiencing hyperglycemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Polyuria is the excessive production of urine and is a common finding in clients with hyperglycemia due to increased glucose levels. High blood sugar levels lead to the body trying to eliminate the excess glucose through urine, resulting in increased urination. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is low blood sugar and is not typically associated with hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) is excessive sweating and is not a direct symptom of hyperglycemia. Tachycardia (choice D) is increased heart rate and is not a primary finding in hyperglycemia.

2. A client has a stage 3 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Cleanse the wound with povidone-iodine solution daily.
• B. Irrigate the wound with hydrogen peroxide.
• C. Reposition the client every 4 hours.
• D. Apply a moisture barrier ointment.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a stage 3 pressure injury is to apply a moisture barrier ointment. This helps protect the skin, maintain moisture balance, and promote healing. Choice A is incorrect because povidone-iodine solution can be too harsh for wound care. Choice B is incorrect as hydrogen peroxide can be cytotoxic to healing tissue. Choice C is important for preventing pressure injuries but is not a direct intervention for a stage 3 wound.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Serum sodium.
• B. Serum glucose.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Serum calcium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, meaning it can lead to potassium loss in the body. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of furosemide and prevent hypokalemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not directly affect sodium, glucose, or calcium levels in the same way it impacts potassium levels.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has asthma and is experiencing wheezing. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider administer?

• A. Fluticasone
• B. Montelukast
• C. Albuterol
• D. Ipratropium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist bronchodilator used to quickly relieve bronchospasm in clients with asthma who are experiencing wheezing. Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid used for long-term control of asthma symptoms and not for acute wheezing. Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for long-term asthma management, not for immediate relief of wheezing. Ipratropium is an anticholinergic bronchodilator used for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and not typically used as the first-line treatment for asthma exacerbation.

5. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. Which result is reportable?

• A. Herpes simplex
• B. Human papillomavirus
• C. Candidiasis
• D. Chlamydia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chlamydia is a reportable sexually transmitted infection. Reporting cases of Chlamydia to the health department is crucial for disease surveillance, contact tracing, and implementing public health interventions. Herpes simplex, human papillomavirus, and candidiasis are not typically reportable infections, as they do not pose the same public health risks as Chlamydia.

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