Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Auditory hallucinations
• B. Delusions of grandeur
• C. A flat affect
• D. Disorganized speech

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Delusions of grandeur. Clients with paranoid schizophrenia often experience delusions of grandeur or persecution, auditory hallucinations, and a flat affect. However, the most characteristic finding for paranoid schizophrenia is the presence of delusions, which are fixed false beliefs that are not based in reality. Delusions of grandeur, where individuals believe they are exceptionally powerful or important, are commonly seen in paranoid schizophrenia. Choice A, auditory hallucinations, are more commonly associated with other types of schizophrenia such as paranoid or disorganized schizophrenia. Choice C, a flat affect, is a symptom that can be seen across various types of schizophrenia. Choice D, disorganized speech, is more indicative of disorganized schizophrenia.

2. A client is being taught relaxation techniques to manage anxiety. Which of the following techniques should be included in the teaching? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Deep breathing exercises
• B. Progressive muscle relaxation
• C. Mindfulness meditation
• D. Cognitive restructuring

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Relaxation techniques commonly used to manage anxiety include deep breathing exercises, progressive muscle relaxation, mindfulness meditation, and guided imagery. Cognitive restructuring, on the other hand, is a cognitive-behavioral technique used to challenge and change negative thought patterns, not specifically a relaxation technique. Therefore, choice D, cognitive restructuring, does not apply to relaxation techniques for managing anxiety.

3. For a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) who spends several hours a day washing her hands, which type of therapy is most appropriate?

• A. Exposure and response prevention
• B. Dialectical behavior therapy
• C. Family therapy
• D. Interpersonal therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is the most appropriate therapy for managing OCD. ERP involves exposing the patient to anxiety-provoking stimuli (such as touching dirty objects) and preventing the compulsive response (hand washing), thus helping the patient learn to tolerate the anxiety without performing the ritualistic behavior. Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) focuses more on emotional regulation and interpersonal skills, making it less suitable for directly addressing OCD symptoms. Family therapy and interpersonal therapy may be beneficial for other conditions or relationship issues but are not specifically designed to target OCD symptoms like ERP.

4. Which client action is an example of the defense mechanism of reaction formation?

• A. A woman who feels unattractive constantly praises the looks of others.
• B. A man who feels insecure about his masculinity exaggerates his strength.
• C. A person who feels guilty about cheating accuses others of being unfaithful.
• D. A child who feels neglected tries to win approval from teachers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The defense mechanism of reaction formation involves expressing the opposite of one's true feelings. In this case, the woman who feels unattractive praises the looks of others as a way to mask her own feelings of inadequacy. This behavior represents a form of overcompensation where the individual showcases an exaggerated opposite trait to conceal their true emotions. Choices B, C, and D do not align with reaction formation. Choice B describes compensation, where one overemphasizes a trait to make up for a perceived weakness. Choice C illustrates projection, where one attributes their feelings onto others. Choice D demonstrates a form of seeking attention or approval, which does not fit reaction formation.

5. The healthcare provider is preparing to provide medication instruction for a patient. Which of the following understandings about anxiety will be essential to effective instruction?

• A. Learning is best when anxiety is moderate to severe.
• B. Learning is enhanced when anxiety is mild.
• C. Panic-level anxiety helps the provider teach better.
• D. Severe anxiety is characterized by intense concentration and enhances the attention span.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Mild anxiety sharpens the senses, increases the perceptual field, and results in heightened awareness of the environment, which enhances learning. As anxiety increases, attention span decreases, making learning more difficult. Therefore, mild anxiety is more conducive to effective instruction compared to moderate to severe anxiety, panic-level anxiety, or severe anxiety. Choice A is incorrect because moderate to severe anxiety impairs learning. Choice C is incorrect as panic-level anxiety can be overwhelming and hinder the learning process. Choice D is incorrect because severe anxiety typically leads to impaired attention span rather than enhancing it.

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