ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam Quizlet
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client following a gunshot wound to the chest. For which of the following findings should the healthcare professional not monitor to detect a pneumothorax?
- A. Tachypnea
- B. Deviation of the trachea
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Pleuritic pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate, is not typically associated with a pneumothorax. In a pneumothorax, the presence of air in the pleural space can lead to lung collapse, causing symptoms such as tachypnea (rapid breathing), deviation of the trachea, and pleuritic pain. Monitoring for bradycardia may not be as relevant in this context as it is not a typical indicator of a pneumothorax.
2. A client who wears glasses is under the care of a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Store the glasses in a labeled case.
- B. Clean the glasses with hot water
- C. Clean the glasses with a paper towel.
- D. Store the glasses on the bedside table.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is essential for the nurse to store the client's glasses in a labeled case to ensure they are kept safe and protected from damage. Storing them in a case helps prevent scratches, breakage, or misplacement. This practice promotes proper eyewear hygiene and ensures the client has their glasses readily available when needed. Cleaning the glasses with hot water or a paper towel can potentially damage the lenses or frames. Storing the glasses on the bedside table increases the risk of misplacement or damage.
3. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is assessing a client who has a suspected flail chest. Which of the following findings should the professional not expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Cyanosis
- C. Hypotension
- D. Dyspnea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is not typically associated with a flail chest. Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest wall movement, respiratory distress, and hypoxia, but it does not usually cause bradycardia. The other options, such as cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor oxygenation), hypotension (low blood pressure), and dyspnea (difficulty breathing), are commonly seen in patients with flail chest due to the underlying respiratory compromise.
4. When assessing a client with a history of asthma, which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a risk for asthma?
- A. Gender
- B. Environmental allergies
- C. Alcohol
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When assessing a client with a history of asthma, the nurse should identify environmental allergies as a risk factor for asthma. Environmental allergens such as pollen, dust mites, mold, and pet dander can trigger asthma symptoms and exacerbate the condition. Gender, alcohol consumption, and other factors may not directly contribute to the development or exacerbation of asthma.
5. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
- B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
- C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
- D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.
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