ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam Quizlet
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client following a gunshot wound to the chest. For which of the following findings should the healthcare professional not monitor to detect a pneumothorax?
- A. Tachypnea
- B. Deviation of the trachea
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Pleuritic pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate, is not typically associated with a pneumothorax. In a pneumothorax, the presence of air in the pleural space can lead to lung collapse, causing symptoms such as tachypnea (rapid breathing), deviation of the trachea, and pleuritic pain. Monitoring for bradycardia may not be as relevant in this context as it is not a typical indicator of a pneumothorax.
2. A client with active tuberculosis is prescribed isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I can substitute one medication for another if I run out because they all fight infection.
- B. I will wash my hands each time I cough.
- C. I am glad I don't have to have any more sputum specimens.
- D. I don't need to worry about where I go once I start taking my medications.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement indicating understanding of tuberculosis medication regimen is 'I will wash my hands each time I cough.' This statement shows knowledge of infection control practices to prevent the spread of tuberculosis. Washing hands after coughing helps in reducing the transmission of the disease to others. The other options are incorrect. Option A is incorrect as each medication in the regimen has a specific role, and substituting one for another can compromise the effectiveness of treatment. Option C is incorrect as obtaining sputum specimens is essential for monitoring treatment response. Option D is incorrect as the client should still adhere to infection control measures and avoid exposing others to tuberculosis.
3. When planning care for a client on mechanical ventilation, which mode of ventilation that increases the effort of the client's respiratory muscles should NOT be included in the plan of care?
- A. Assist-control
- B. Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation
- C. Continuous positive airway pressure
- D. Pressure support ventilation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assist-control ventilation mode delivers a preset tidal volume at a set rate; however, it may not be suitable for clients who need to maintain some level of respiratory muscle activity. This mode provides full support for each breath, potentially leading to decreased respiratory muscle strength over time. Therefore, it is important to avoid using assist-control mode for clients who require increased effort of respiratory muscles to prevent muscle atrophy and promote optimal respiratory function.
4. When is the most appropriate time for obtaining a sputum specimen for culture?
- A. Early in the morning
- B. After the patient eats a light breakfast
- C. After aerosol therapy
- D. After chest physiotherapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Obtaining a sputum specimen early in the morning is the most appropriate time because secretions have accumulated overnight. This timing provides the best sample with the least contamination, leading to more accurate culture results and aiding in diagnosing respiratory infections effectively.
5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is experiencing respiratory distress. Which of the following early manifestations of hypoxemia should the professional recognize?
- A. Confusion
- B. Pale skin
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pale skin is an early manifestation of hypoxemia due to decreased oxygenation of the blood. The skin may appear pale as the body redirects blood flow to vital organs in response to low oxygen levels. Confusion, bradycardia, and hypotension may occur as hypoxemia worsens, but pale skin is one of the initial signs that healthcare professionals should recognize when assessing a client experiencing respiratory distress.
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