Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client following a gunshot wound to the chest. For which of the following findings should the healthcare professional not monitor to detect a pneumothorax?

• A. Tachypnea
• B. Deviation of the trachea
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Pleuritic pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate, is not typically associated with a pneumothorax. In a pneumothorax, the presence of air in the pleural space can lead to lung collapse, causing symptoms such as tachypnea (rapid breathing), deviation of the trachea, and pleuritic pain. Monitoring for bradycardia may not be as relevant in this context as it is not a typical indicator of a pneumothorax.

2. When providing discharge teaching for a group of clients, a nurse should recommend a referral to a dietitian for which client?

• A. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and states, 'I will need to limit how much spinach I eat.'
• B. A client who has gout and states, 'I can continue to eat anchovies on my pizza.'
• C. A client who has a prescription for spironolactone and states, 'I will reduce my intake of foods that contain potassium.'
• D. A client who has osteoporosis and states, 'I'll plan to take my calcium carbonate with a full glass of water.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the client who has gout and states, 'I can continue to eat anchovies on my pizza.' Gout is a condition that requires dietary modifications to manage symptoms. Anchovies are high in purines, which can exacerbate gout symptoms. Therefore, a referral to a dietitian is essential to provide appropriate dietary guidance for a client with gout. Clients on warfarin may need to monitor their vitamin K intake, particularly from foods like spinach. Clients taking spironolactone should be cautious about potassium-rich foods. Clients with osteoporosis should be educated on the proper administration of calcium supplements but do not necessarily need a dietitian referral for this specific statement.

3. Which of the following principles of primary nursing has proven the most satisfying to the patient and nurse?

• A. Administer oxygen by Venturi mask at 24% as needed
• B. Allow a 1-hour rest period between activities
• C. Patients and nurses both respond well to primary nursing care units
• D. Studies have shown that patients and nurses both respond well to primary nursing care units

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Primary nursing care units have been proven to be highly satisfying for both patients and nurses. This model promotes a consistent and continuous relationship between a patient and a primary nurse, leading to improved communication, personalized care, and overall satisfaction for both parties involved.

4. What is the abbreviation for micro drop?

• A. µgtt
• B. gtt
• C. mdr
• D. mgts

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct abbreviation for micro drop is 'µgtt,' where the symbol 'µ' represents micro and 'gtt' stands for drop. Choice B, 'gtt,' is the abbreviation for drop, not specifically for micro drop. Choice C, 'mdr,' and Choice D, 'mgts,' are not standard abbreviations for micro drop and are incorrect.

5. Before rigor mortis occurs, what is the nurse responsible for?

• A. Providing a complete bath and dressing change
• B. Placing one pillow under the body’s head and shoulders
• C. Removing the body’s clothing and wrapping the body in a shroud
• D. Allowing the body to relax normally

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before rigor mortis occurs, the nurse is responsible for placing a pillow under the body's head and shoulders. This action helps maintain proper positioning, prevent postmortem changes, and ensure a dignified appearance. Providing a complete bath and dressing change, removing clothing, or wrapping the body in a shroud are tasks typically performed after rigor mortis sets in or later in the postmortem care process. Allowing the body to relax normally does not address the immediate need for proper positioning before rigor mortis occurs.

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