ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam Quizlet
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client following a gunshot wound to the chest. For which of the following findings should the healthcare professional not monitor to detect a pneumothorax?
- A. Tachypnea
- B. Deviation of the trachea
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Pleuritic pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate, is not typically associated with a pneumothorax. In a pneumothorax, the presence of air in the pleural space can lead to lung collapse, causing symptoms such as tachypnea (rapid breathing), deviation of the trachea, and pleuritic pain. Monitoring for bradycardia may not be as relevant in this context as it is not a typical indicator of a pneumothorax.
2. What is the meaning of PRN?
- A. When advice
- B. Immediately
- C. When necessary
- D. Now
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct meaning of PRN is 'when necessary.' The abbreviation 'PRN' comes from the Latin term 'pro re nata,' which is commonly used in medical contexts to indicate that a medication should be taken as needed, not at scheduled intervals. Choice A ('When advice') is incorrect as PRN does not refer to seeking advice. Choice B ('Immediately') is incorrect as PRN does not imply urgency. Choice D ('Now') is incorrect as PRN does not mean 'immediate' but rather 'as needed.' Therefore, the correct answer is C, 'When necessary.'
3. When teaching a client with tuberculosis, which statement should the nurse include?
- A. You will need to continue taking the multi-medication regimen for 4 months.
- B. You will need to provide sputum samples every 4 weeks to monitor the effectiveness of the medication.
- C. You will need to remain hospitalized for treatment.
- D. You will need to wear a mask at all times.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring the effectiveness of tuberculosis medication is crucial to ensure the treatment is working properly. Regular sputum samples help in assessing the response to the medication. This monitoring can guide adjustments in the treatment plan if needed. Options A and C are incorrect as they do not reflect essential aspects of tuberculosis treatment. Option D is not a standard recommendation for tuberculosis treatment and may lead to misconceptions.
4. To assess the kidney function of a patient with an indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter, the nurse measures the hourly urine output. When should she notify the physician?
- A. Less than 30 ml/hour
- B. 64 ml in 2 hours
- C. 90 ml in 3 hours
- D. 125 ml in 4 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Notifying the physician is necessary when the urine output is less than 30 ml/hour as it indicates impaired kidney function. Adequate urine output is essential for monitoring kidney function, and a urine output less than 30 ml/hour could suggest potential renal issues that require medical attention.
5. A client is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction that occurred 3 days ago. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the care plan?
- A. Perform an ECG every 12 hours.
- B. Place the client in a supine position while resting.
- C. Draw a troponin level every 4 hours.
- D. Obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consultation.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After an acute myocardial infarction, cardiac rehabilitation is crucial for the client's recovery. It helps improve the client's overall cardiovascular health, reduces the risk of future cardiac events, and promotes a healthy lifestyle. The other options do not directly address the importance of cardiac rehabilitation in the client's recovery process.
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