ATI RN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2023
1. When admitting a client at 33 weeks of gestation with a diagnosis of placenta previa, which action should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Monitor vaginal bleeding
- B. Administer glucocorticoids
- C. Insert an IV catheter
- D. Apply an external fetal monitor
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to potential bleeding. When admitting a client with placenta previa, the priority is to assess the fetal well-being. Applying an external fetal monitor helps in continuous monitoring of the fetal heart rate and ensures timely detection of any distress or changes in the fetal status, which is crucial in managing this condition. While monitoring vaginal bleeding is important, identifying fetal well-being takes precedence in this situation.
2. A woman at 38 weeks of gestation and in early labor with ruptured membranes has an oral temperature of 38.9�C (102�F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?
- A. Recheck the client's temperature in 4 hours
- B. Administer glucocorticoids intramuscularly
- C. Assess the odor of the amniotic fluid
- D. Prepare the client for emergency cesarean section
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a pregnant woman with a temperature of 38.9�C (102�F) in early labor with ruptured membranes, assessing the odor of the amniotic fluid is crucial. Foul-smelling or malodorous amniotic fluid could indicate infection, such as chorioamnionitis, which poses risks to both the woman and the fetus. This assessment can help in determining if an infection is present and prompt appropriate interventions. Rechecking the temperature, administering glucocorticoids, or preparing for an emergency cesarean section are not the most immediate or appropriate actions in this scenario.
3. A client is receiving positive-pressure mechanical ventilation. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to prevent complications? (Select one that doesn't apply.)
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30�.
- B. Apply restraints if the client becomes agitated.
- C. Administer pantoprazole as prescribed.
- D. Reposition the endotracheal tube to the opposite side of the mouth daily.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Repositioning the endotracheal tube to the opposite side of the mouth daily is not a standard practice in preventing complications in a client receiving positive-pressure mechanical ventilation. This action may disrupt the secure placement of the endotracheal tube and increase the risk of complications. Elevating the head of the bed to at least 30� helps prevent aspiration and ventilator-associated pneumonia. Applying restraints if the client becomes agitated helps maintain the safety of the client by preventing self-extubation or accidental dislodgement of tubes. Administering pantoprazole as prescribed helps prevent stress ulcers, a common complication in critically ill patients on mechanical ventilation.
4. A client who is 2 hours postpartum following a cesarean birth has a history of thromboembolic disease. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Apply warm, moist heat to the client's lower extremities.
- B. Massage the client's posterior lower legs.
- C. Place pillows under the client's knees when resting in bed.
- D. Have the client ambulate.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a cesarean birth with a history of thromboembolic disease is to have the client ambulate. Early ambulation is crucial in preventing complications such as deep vein thrombosis in postpartum clients. Applying warm, moist heat, massaging the legs, or placing pillows under the knees do not directly address the risk of thromboembolic disease in this scenario.
5. A client is admitted to the emergency room with a respiratory rate of 7/min. Arterial blood gases (ABG) reveal the following values. Which of the following is an appropriate analysis of the ABGs? pH 7.22, PaCO2 68 mm Hg, Base excess -2, PaO2 78 mm Hg, Saturation 80%, Bicarbonate 26 mEq/L
- A. Respiratory acidosis
- B. Metabolic acidosis
- C. Metabolic alkalosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The ABG values provided indicate respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, there is an increase in PaCO2 above the normal range (35-45 mm Hg) leading to a decrease in pH (<7.35). In this case, the pH is 7.22 (below normal) with an elevated PaCO2 of 68 mm Hg. The other values do not suggest metabolic acidosis (which would typically show low bicarbonate levels) or metabolic alkalosis. Therefore, the correct interpretation of the ABGs is respiratory acidosis.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access