Nursing Elites

1. When administering amlodipine to a client with hypertension, what adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Constipation
• B. Facial flushing
• C. Hypotension
• D. Jaundice

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Hypotension. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly used to treat hypertension. One of the main adverse effects of amlodipine is hypotension, leading to low blood pressure. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of hypotension such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because constipation, facial flushing, and jaundice are not typically associated with amlodipine administration.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. At what angle should the nurse administer the medication using the ventrogluteal site?

• A. a 45-degree angle
• B. a 60-degree angle
• C. a 75-degree angle
• D. a 90-degree angle

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Intramuscular injections in the ventrogluteal site should be administered at a 90-degree angle. This angle ensures that the medication reaches the muscle tissue effectively. Angles less than 90 degrees can cause subcutaneous injection instead of intramuscular, leading to slower absorption of the medication. Angles greater than 90 degrees risk hitting bone or nerves, causing unnecessary pain or injury. Therefore, the correct angle for administering intramuscular injections in the ventrogluteal site is 90 degrees.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer nitroglycerin ointment to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Apply the ointment to the client's hairless chest
• B. Rub the ointment gently into the skin
• C. Cover the applied ointment with a transparent dressing
• D. Massage the ointment into the skin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to apply the nitroglycerin ointment to a hairless area of the client's chest, back, or upper arms. This allows for better absorption of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because rubbing the ointment gently into the skin may be appropriate, but the primary action is to ensure application on a hairless area. Choice C is incorrect as covering the ointment with a transparent dressing is not a standard practice for nitroglycerin ointment administration. Choice D is incorrect because massaging the ointment into the skin is not recommended, as it can alter absorption rates.

4. A 45-year-old client is taking methylprednisolone. What pharmacologic action should the nurse expect with this therapy?

• A. Suppression of beta2 receptors
• B. Suppression of airway mucus production
• C. Fortification of bones
• D. Suppression of candidiasis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Suppression of airway mucus production. Corticosteroids like methylprednisolone are known to suppress airway mucus production. This action helps in reducing inflammation and swelling in the airways, making breathing easier for individuals with conditions like asthma or COPD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Suppression of beta2 receptors is more related to beta-blockers, fortification of bones is associated with medications like bisphosphonates, and suppression of candidiasis is not a typical pharmacologic action of methylprednisolone.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed amoxicillin. Which of the following client history findings requires the nurse to clarify the medication prescription?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Peptic ulcer disease
• C. Asthma
• D. Gastroesophageal reflux disease

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with a history of asthma should avoid amoxicillin due to potential hypersensitivity reactions. Amoxicillin can trigger asthma exacerbations in some individuals. Hypertension (choice A), peptic ulcer disease (choice B), and gastroesophageal reflux disease (choice D) are not contraindications for amoxicillin use, so they do not require the nurse to clarify the medication prescription in this case.

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