Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV vancomycin. The nurse notes flushing of the client's neck and chest. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Stop the infusion
• B. Document the findings as a harmless reaction
• C. Slow the infusion rate
• D. Administer diphenhydramine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client receiving IV vancomycin shows flushing of the neck and chest is to slow the infusion rate. Flushing is a common sign of Red Man Syndrome, which is associated with rapid infusions of vancomycin. Slowing down the infusion rate can help prevent further flushing and the development of Red Man Syndrome. Stopping the infusion (Choice A) may be too drastic if the symptoms are mild and can be managed by slowing the rate. Documenting the findings as a harmless reaction (Choice B) is incorrect because flushing should be addressed promptly to prevent complications. Administering diphenhydramine (Choice D) is not the initial or best intervention for flushing associated with vancomycin; slowing the infusion rate is the priority.

2. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed enoxaparin for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis. Which of the following client assessments requires immediate intervention?

• A. Platelet count of 95,000/mm³
• B. Blood pressure of 145/90 mmHg
• C. Heart rate of 95 beats per minute
• D. Pain at the injection site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A platelet count of 95,000/mm³ requires immediate intervention as it is low and increases the risk of bleeding, which is a potential complication of enoxaparin therapy. Low platelet counts can predispose the patient to hemorrhage, and administering anticoagulants like enoxaparin in such cases can further increase the bleeding risk. Monitoring platelet counts is crucial during anticoagulant therapy to prevent serious bleeding complications. The other options do not pose immediate risks related to enoxaparin therapy. A slightly elevated blood pressure, a heart rate of 95 beats per minute, and pain at the injection site are common findings that may not warrant immediate intervention in this context.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client receiving gentamicin therapy. Which of the following client assessments is a priority for the healthcare professional to monitor for an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Urinary output
• B. Serum glucose
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Hearing acuity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hearing acuity. Gentamicin is known to be ototoxic, which means it can cause damage to the auditory system leading to hearing loss. Monitoring hearing acuity is crucial to detect early signs of hearing impairment. Monitoring urinary output (choice A) is important for assessing kidney function but is not directly related to gentamicin's adverse effects. Monitoring serum glucose (choice B) and respiratory rate (choice C) are not specifically associated with gentamicin therapy.

4. A client with an artificial heart valve is prescribed warfarin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of warfarin?

• A. Hemoglobin (Hgb)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Bleeding time
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT). Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the clotting factors dependent on vitamin K, such as factors II, VII, IX, and X. The prothrombin time (PT) measures the extrinsic pathway and is used to monitor the therapeutic effects of warfarin therapy. Monitoring PT helps assess the time it takes for the blood to clot, ensuring that the anticoagulant effect is within the desired range. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hemoglobin (Hgb) measures the amount of hemoglobin in the blood, bleeding time assesses the time it takes for bleeding to stop, and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin therapy.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with diabetes and a new prescription for 14 units of regular insulin and 28 units of NPH insulin subcutaneously at breakfast daily. What is the total number of units of insulin that the nurse should prepare in the insulin syringe?

• A. 14 units
• B. 28 units
• C. 32 units
• D. 42 units

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should combine both orders of insulin in the same syringe. To prepare the correct dose, the nurse should withdraw the regular insulin first (14 units) and then the NPH insulin (28 units), totaling 42 units. This combination ensures the client receives the prescribed doses of both types of insulin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the nurse needs to prepare and administer both types of insulin as prescribed, resulting in a total of 42 units in the syringe.

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