Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV vancomycin. The nurse notes flushing of the client's neck and chest. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Stop the infusion
• B. Document the findings as a harmless reaction
• C. Slow the infusion rate
• D. Administer diphenhydramine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client receiving IV vancomycin shows flushing of the neck and chest is to slow the infusion rate. Flushing is a common sign of Red Man Syndrome, which is associated with rapid infusions of vancomycin. Slowing down the infusion rate can help prevent further flushing and the development of Red Man Syndrome. Stopping the infusion (Choice A) may be too drastic if the symptoms are mild and can be managed by slowing the rate. Documenting the findings as a harmless reaction (Choice B) is incorrect because flushing should be addressed promptly to prevent complications. Administering diphenhydramine (Choice D) is not the initial or best intervention for flushing associated with vancomycin; slowing the infusion rate is the priority.

2. When administering amlodipine to a client with hypertension, what adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Constipation
• B. Facial flushing
• C. Hypotension
• D. Jaundice

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Hypotension. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly used to treat hypertension. One of the main adverse effects of amlodipine is hypotension, leading to low blood pressure. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of hypotension such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because constipation, facial flushing, and jaundice are not typically associated with amlodipine administration.

3. A client has been prescribed isosorbide mononitrate. Which of the following should the nurse include in the client education related to this medication?

• A. This medication is prescribed for long-term therapy prophylaxis against anginal attacks
• B. Do not crush this medication
• C. Take the medication in the evening after dinner
• D. Do not take an additional tablet if you experience chest pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because isosorbide mononitrate is used for long-term prophylaxis against anginal attacks. Choice B is incorrect because isosorbide mononitrate should not be crushed. Choice C does not specify a particular time for medication administration. Choice D is incorrect because isosorbide mononitrate is not meant to be taken as needed for chest pain; it is part of a long-term therapy plan.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is prescribed acetaminophen for pain. Which of the following lab values should the nurse monitor to identify an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Serum glucose
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. Serum potassium
• D. Serum bilirubin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum creatinine. Acetaminophen is metabolized by the liver, so serum creatinine levels should be monitored for potential hepatotoxicity. Monitoring serum creatinine can help detect liver damage, a potential adverse effect of acetaminophen. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because serum glucose is not directly affected by acetaminophen, serum potassium is not typically monitored for acetaminophen adverse effects, and serum bilirubin is more related to bile metabolism rather than acetaminophen-induced hepatotoxicity.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine to an adult client. Which of the following is a contraindication to this vaccine?

• A. The possibility of pregnancy within 4 weeks
• B. Client allergy to strawberries
• C. Client history of genital herpes
• D. The possibility of overseas travel in the next month

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Pregnancy or the possibility of pregnancy within 4 weeks is a contraindication for receiving the MMR vaccine. Choice B, client allergy to strawberries, is not a contraindication to the MMR vaccine. Choice C, client history of genital herpes, is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine. Choice D, the possibility of overseas travel in the next month, is not a contraindication to the MMR vaccine.

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