Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client. Which of the following findings is not a manifestation of pulmonary tuberculosis?

• A. Night sweats
• B. Low-grade fever
• C. Weight gain
• D. Blood in the sputum

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

2. A client is receiving discharge teaching after a total hip replacement. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid crossing my legs when sitting.
• B. I can sleep on my side as long as I use a pillow between my legs.
• C. I will avoid bending at the waist to pick things up.
• D. I can bend down to tie my shoes after 2 weeks.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a total hip replacement, clients should avoid bending at the waist past 90 degrees for at least 6 weeks to prevent dislocation of the hip prosthesis. Bending down to tie shoes involves significant hip flexion and should be avoided during the initial postoperative period to ensure proper healing and reduce the risk of complications.

3. A client is unconscious with a breathing pattern characterized by alternating periods of hyperventilation and apnea. The nurse should document that the client has which of the following respiratory alterations?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Apneustic respirations
• C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. This pattern is often seen in clients with neurological or cardiac conditions. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid breaths often associated with metabolic acidosis. Apneustic respirations are characterized by prolonged inhalations with shortened exhalations and can indicate damage to the pons. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy respiratory sound usually associated with upper airway obstruction. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's alternating pattern of hyperventilation and apnea aligns with Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

4. A client is on intravenous heparin to treat a pulmonary embolism. The client's most recent partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was 25 seconds. What action should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Decrease the heparin rate.
• B. Increase the heparin rate.
• C. No change to the heparin rate.
• D. Stop the heparin; start warfarin (Coumadin).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For clients on heparin therapy, a PTT value of 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal range is required to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. The normal PTT range is 25 to 35 seconds. In this case, the client's PTT of 25 seconds falls below the therapeutic range, indicating that the heparin dose is insufficient. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate increasing the heparin rate to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.

5. A client is being treated for inhalational anthrax following bioterrorism exposure. Which of the following medications should NOT be expected as a common treatment for anthrax?

• A. Ciprofloxacin
• B. Doxycycline
• C. Amoxicillin
• D. Penicillin G

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Penicillin G is NOT commonly used to treat anthrax. Anthrax is typically treated with antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin and doxycycline due to penicillin's limited efficacy against anthrax bacteria. Amoxicillin is also not a preferred choice for anthrax treatment. Therefore, penicillin G would not be expected as a primary medication for anthrax treatment following bioterrorism exposure.

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