Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client. Which of the following findings is not a manifestation of pulmonary tuberculosis?

• A. Night sweats
• B. Low-grade fever
• C. Weight gain
• D. Blood in the sputum

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

2. A client tests positive for alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency and asks the nurse, What does this mean? How should the nurse respond?

• A. Your children may be at high risk for developing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
• B. I will arrange for a genetic counselor to discuss your condition.
• C. Your risk for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is higher, particularly if you smoke.
• D. This is a recessive gene that should not affect your health.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency is associated with a higher risk of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), especially if the individual smokes. This condition is caused by a recessive gene. Individuals with one allele typically produce enough AAT to prevent COPD unless they smoke. However, those with two alleles are at high risk for COPD even without exposure to smoke or other irritants. Being a carrier of AAT deficiency does not guarantee that one's children will develop the disease; it depends on the AAT levels of the partner. While involving a genetic counselor may be beneficial in the long run, the immediate concern of the client's question should be addressed first.

3. The client with a chest tube after a coronary artery bypass graft has significantly slowed drainage. What action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Increase the setting on the suction.
• B. Notify the provider immediately.
• C. Re-position the chest tube.
• D. Take the tubing apart to assess for clots.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: If the drainage from the chest tube decreases significantly, it may indicate a blockage by a clot, potentially leading to cardiac tamponade. The nurse's priority action should be to notify the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention. Increasing suction, re-positioning the chest tube, or disassembling the tubing independently are not appropriate actions without healthcare provider guidance in this situation.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who had a myocardial infarction. Upon auscultating heart sounds, the provider hears the following sound. What action by the provider is most appropriate?

• A. Assess the client's lung sounds.
• B. Call the Rapid Response Team.
• C. Have the client sit upright.
• D. Listen to the client's lung sounds.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The sound described is an S3 heart sound, which can indicate heart failure. The next appropriate action for the provider is to listen to the client's lung sounds. Lung sounds can provide additional information about the client's condition, especially when abnormal heart sounds are present. Calling the Rapid Response Team is not warranted based solely on the heart sound assessment. Having the client sit upright is not directly related to addressing the abnormal heart sound.

5. A client developed fat embolism syndrome (FES) following a fracture. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased serum calcium level
• B. Decreased level of serum lipids
• C. Decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
• D. Increased platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In fat embolism syndrome (FES), fat globules enter the bloodstream and can lead to various complications, including a decrease in serum calcium levels. This occurs due to the formation of fat emboli in the vessels, which can interfere with calcium metabolism. Therefore, a decreased serum calcium level is an expected laboratory finding in a client with fat embolism syndrome.

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