Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client. Which of the following findings is not a manifestation of pulmonary tuberculosis?

• A. Night sweats
• B. Low-grade fever
• C. Weight gain
• D. Blood in the sputum

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

2. During an assessment of the respiratory pattern of an older adult client receiving end-of-life care, which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as Cheyne-Stokes respirations?

• A. Breathing ranging from very deep to very shallow with periods of apnea
• B. Shallow to normal breaths alternating with periods of apnea
• C. Rapid respirations that are unusually deep and regular
• D. An inability to breathe without dyspnea unless sitting upright

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by a pattern of breathing that ranges from very deep to very shallow with periods of apnea (temporary cessation of breathing). This pattern is often seen in clients near the end of life or with certain medical conditions affecting the respiratory control center in the brain. The alternating deep and shallow breaths can be distressing for both the client and caregivers. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this pattern to provide appropriate care and support to the client and their family during this challenging time.

3. A client is in the immediate postoperative period following a partial laryngectomy. Which of the following parameters should the nurse assess first?

• A. Pain severity
• B. Wound drainage
• C. Tissue integrity
• D. Airway patency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client following a partial laryngectomy, the priority assessment is always airway patency. This is crucial to ensure that the client can breathe adequately and prevent any complications related to airway obstruction. Monitoring airway patency takes precedence over other assessments such as pain severity, wound drainage, and tissue integrity. Any compromise in airway patency requires immediate intervention to maintain the client's respiratory function and safety.

4. A client with a tracheostomy is being cared for by a nurse. The client's partner has been taught to perform suctioning. Which of the following actions by the partner should indicate to the nurse a readiness for the client's discharge?

• A. Attending a class on tracheostomy care
• B. Verbally explaining all steps in the procedure
• C. Performing the procedure independently
• D. Asking relevant questions about suctioning

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the partner can independently perform the suctioning procedure, it demonstrates a readiness for the client's discharge. This indicates that the partner has acquired the necessary skills and knowledge to provide safe care for the client at home without the direct supervision of healthcare professionals.

5. A client with a pleural effusion is being assessed by a nurse. Which clinical manifestation does the nurse expect to find?

• A. Decreased breath sounds on the affected side
• B. Hyperresonance on percussion of the affected side
• C. Increased tactile fremitus on the affected side
• D. Tracheal deviation toward the affected side

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with pleural effusion, decreased breath sounds on the affected side are common due to the presence of fluid in the pleural space. Hyperresonance is not expected; dullness on percussion is more likely. Tactile fremitus is typically decreased, not increased, in pleural effusion cases. Tracheal deviation away from the affected side, not toward it, can be seen with large effusions.

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