ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam
1. A nurse has just inserted a nasogastric (NG) tube for a client. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect to confirm correct tube placement?
- A. The client reports relief of nausea.
- B. The tube aspirate has a pH less than 5.
- C. Bowel sounds are present on auscultation.
- D. An x-ray shows the end of the tube above the pylorus.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The client reports relief of nausea. When the NG tube is correctly placed in the stomach, it can help alleviate feelings of nausea and discomfort. Choice B, a tube aspirate pH less than 5, is incorrect as it indicates gastric placement, not necessarily correct placement. Choice C, bowel sounds on auscultation, and Choice D, visualization of the tube on an x-ray above the pylorus, do not confirm correct NG tube placement; therefore, they are incorrect.
2. Which of the following behaviors would be an early warning sign that you are not handling job stress in a healthy way?
- A. Focusing excessively on patient outcomes
- B. Needing to spend more time alone
- C. Juggling work, studies, and family responsibilities
- D. Awakening in the morning feeling unrested
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Awakening in the morning feeling unrested can be an early warning sign that you are not handling job stress in a healthy way. This may indicate that the stress is impacting your quality of sleep, which is essential for managing stress and maintaining overall well-being. Choices A, B, and C are not necessarily indicative of unhealthy stress management. Focusing excessively on patient outcomes may show dedication to work, needing to spend more time alone could be a personal preference, and juggling work, studies, and family responsibilities could be a common challenge that many individuals face.
3. Constant reports of inadequate pain control in clients indicate which of the following?
- A. Improper administration of medications
- B. Potential substance abuse by the healthcare provider
- C. Poorly written prescriptions
- D. Inadequate scheduling by healthcare providers
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Constant reports of inadequate pain control may suggest potential substance abuse by the healthcare provider, as they might be diverting narcotics for personal use instead of administering them to clients. The incorrect choices include: A) Improper administration of medications may cause inadequate pain control but does not necessarily involve substance abuse. C) Poorly written prescriptions could lead to medication errors but are less likely to be related to substance abuse. D) Inadequate scheduling by healthcare providers might affect pain management but does not directly suggest substance abuse.
4. A patient who was admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis secondary to a urinary tract infection has been weaned off an insulin drip 30 minutes ago. The patient reports feeling lightheaded and sweaty. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Infuse dextrose 50% by slow IV push.
- B. Administer 1 mg glucagon subcutaneously.
- C. Obtain a glucose reading using a finger stick.
- D. Have the patient drink 4 ounces of orange juice.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a patient reports feeling lightheaded and sweaty after being weaned off an insulin drip is to obtain a glucose reading using a finger stick. This will provide crucial information on the patient's current blood glucose level, helping the nurse assess if the symptoms are due to hypoglycemia. Based on the glucose reading, appropriate interventions can be initiated, such as administering dextrose, glucagon, or oral sugars like orange juice if hypoglycemia is confirmed. However, verifying the blood glucose level is the initial step to guide subsequent actions and ensure patient safety.
5. A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?
- A. 0.40 FTEs
- B. 17.0 FTEs
- C. 0.05 FTEs
- D. 1.0 FTEs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the number of Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs) needed for replacement, divide the number of benefit hours (832) by the standard number of hours in a full-time work year (2,080). Therefore, 832 benefit hours รท 2,080 = 0.4 FTEs, which is equivalent to 0.40 FTEs. Choice B (17.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it is a significantly high number that does not align with the calculation. Choice C (0.05 FTEs) is incorrect because it is too low for the given number of benefit hours. Choice D (1.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it represents a full-time position, which is not the correct calculation for replacing 832 benefit hours.
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