Nursing Elites

1. A nurse assesses a male patient who has developed gynecomastia while receiving treatment for peptic ulcers. Which medication from the patient�s history should the nurse recognize as a contributing factor?

• A. Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
• B. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
• C. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
• D. Omeprazole (Prilosec)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cimetidine binds to androgen receptors, producing receptor blockade, which can cause enlarged breast tissue, reduced libido, and impotence. All these effects reverse when dosing stops. Amoxicillin, metronidazole, and omeprazole are not associated with gynecomastia.

2. The nurse is reviewing the prescriber�s orders and notes that omeprazole has been order for a patient admitted with acute coronary syndrome (ACS). The nurse should be concerned if this medication is combined with which medication noted on the patient�s record.

• A. Aspirin 81mg daily
• B. Clopidogrel (Plavix) 75mg daily
• C. Heparin 5000 units subQ q12hrs
• D. Metoprolol 50mg q8hrs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For patients who lack risk factors for GI bleeding, combined use of clopidogrel with a PPI, may reduce the effects of clopidogrel without offering any real benefits and thus should be avoided.

3. Which level nursery classifications are housed in institutions that can provide on-site surgical repair of serious congenital or acquired malformations?

• A. Level III
• B. Level I
• C. Level IV
• D. Level II

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Level IV. Level IV nurseries are equipped to provide the highest level of care, including complex surgical interventions for serious congenital or acquired malformations. These nurseries have the necessary resources and expertise to manage critical cases effectively. Choice A: Level III nurseries provide advanced care for moderately ill newborns but may not have the capacity for on-site surgical repair of serious malformations. Choice B: Level I nurseries offer basic care for healthy newborns and those with minor issues, lacking the resources for surgical interventions. Choice D: Level II nurseries can manage moderately ill newborns but may not have the capability for complex surgical interventions like Level IV nurseries.

4. When caring for an infant with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer antibiotics IM once per day.
• B. Initiate droplet precautions.
• C. Place the infant in a negative-pressure isolation room.
• D. Suction the nasopharynx as needed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for an infant with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), maintaining a patent airway is crucial. Suctioning the nasopharynx as needed helps clear secretions, prevent airway obstruction, and promote effective breathing. This intervention can aid in improving the infant's respiratory status and overall comfort. Administering antibiotics IM once per day (Choice A) is not indicated for RSV as it is caused by a virus, not bacteria. Initiating droplet precautions (Choice B) is important to prevent the spread of respiratory infections like RSV, but directly caring for the infant involves more specific interventions. Placing the infant in a negative-pressure isolation room (Choice C) is generally reserved for airborne infections, not RSV which spreads through respiratory droplets.

5. Which standardized test would be most appropriate for assessing the motor development of a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic?

• A. Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2)
• B. Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency (BOT-2)
• C. Pediatric Evaluation of Disability Index (PEDI)
• D. School Assessment of Motor and Process Skills (School-AMPS)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2) is specifically designed to assess the motor development of infants and young children, making it the most appropriate choice for evaluating a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic setting.

Similar Questions