Nursing Elites

1. A nurse assesses a male patient who has developed gynecomastia while receiving treatment for peptic ulcers. Which medication from the patient�s history should the nurse recognize as a contributing factor?

• A. Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
• B. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
• C. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
• D. Omeprazole (Prilosec)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cimetidine binds to androgen receptors, producing receptor blockade, which can cause enlarged breast tissue, reduced libido, and impotence. All these effects reverse when dosing stops. Amoxicillin, metronidazole, and omeprazole are not associated with gynecomastia.

2. A patient taking sildenafil (Viagra) asks a nurse what action to take if priapism occurs. Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. Take an additional half-strength dose of sildenafil
• B. The condition usually resolves in 12 hours or less
• C. Wait until the following day and notify the doctor
• D. Seek emergency help, because permanent damage can occur

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patients experiencing priapism from sildenafil should seek immediate medical attention. Priapism is a serious condition where an erection lasts longer than 4 hours, and if left untreated, it can lead to irreversible damage to the penile tissue, potentially causing permanent erectile dysfunction. Therefore, prompt intervention is crucial to prevent long-term complications.

3. A toddler is admitted to the surgical unit for a planned closure of a temporary colostomy. Which medical prescription should the nurse question?

• A. Clear liquids today, NPO tomorrow
• B. Type and cross-match for 1 unit of packed red blood cells
• C. Rectal temperatures every 4 hours
• D. Start an intravenous line with D5NS at 20 mL per hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Rectal temperatures should be avoided in a toddler with a colostomy due to the risk of injury. Choices A, B, and D are appropriate medical prescriptions for a toddler undergoing colostomy closure. Choice A ensures the toddler's intake of clear liquids before being made NPO, choice B prepares for possible blood transfusion needs, and choice D initiates intravenous hydration with D5NS at an appropriate rate.

4. At what age may an infant close their eyes to bright lights and show improved head control?

• A. 30-33 weeks after conception
• B. 34-36 weeks after conception
• C. Less than 30 weeks after conception
• D. 37-40 weeks after conception

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Around 30-33 weeks after conception, infants usually start closing their eyes in response to bright lights and exhibit enhanced head control. This developmental milestone indicates progress in their visual and motor abilities, reflecting the maturation of their neurological system. As preterm infants continue to grow and develop, they gradually acquire these skills, showcasing the natural progression of their sensory and motor functions.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a 9-month-old infant who just returned from the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) after a shunt placement for hydrocephalus. Which healthcare provider prescription should the nurse question?

• A. Vital signs and neurologic checks hourly
• B. Small, frequent formula feedings
• C. Elevate the head of the bed
• D. Daily head circumference measurements

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed in a child with hydrocephalus can potentially increase intracranial pressure. This can be counterproductive and may lead to complications after shunt placement surgery. Keeping the head of the bed flat or slightly elevated is often recommended to optimize cerebral perfusion and reduce the risk of increased intracranial pressure.

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