Nursing Elites

1.

• A. Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
• B. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
• C. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
• D. Omeprazole (Prilosec)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cimetidine binds to androgen receptors, producing receptor blockade, which can cause enlarged breast tissue, reduced libido, and impotence. All these effects reverse when dosing stops. Amoxicillin, metronidazole, and omeprazole are not associated with gynecomastia.

2. A nurse is planning care to address nutritional needs for a preschooler with cystic fibrosis. Which interventions should the nurse include in plans?

• A. Administer pancreatic enzymes 2 hours after meals.
• B. Monitor and adjust the use of pancreatic enzymes if steatorrhea develops.
• C. Encourage adequate fluid intake based on the child's needs.
• D. Increase fat content in the child's diet to 40% of total calories.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Increasing fat content in the diet is essential for meeting the high energy needs of a child with cystic fibrosis. Cystic fibrosis impairs the absorption of nutrients, particularly fats, so increasing the fat content in the child's diet to 40% of total calories helps ensure adequate caloric intake. This intervention can help maintain the child's nutritional status and support growth and development.

3. A healthcare provider is planning care for a child with hyperkalemia. Which manifestation associated with the documented hyperkalemia requires immediate intervention by the healthcare provider?

• A. Hyperthermia
• B. Respiratory distress
• C. Seizures
• D. Cardiac arrhythmias

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hyperkalemia, cardiac arrhythmias are the most critical and life-threatening manifestation that requires immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous heart rhythm disturbances, potentially resulting in cardiac arrest. Prompt treatment is essential to stabilize the heart rhythm and prevent life-threatening complications. Hyperthermia, respiratory distress, and seizures are not typically associated with hyperkalemia and should be addressed, but cardiac arrhythmias pose the most urgent risk to the patient's life.

4. The patient taking spironolactone (Aldactone) makes a statement indicating effective teaching. Which statement shows understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will use salt substitutes to lower my sodium intake
• B. I will increase my intake of foods that are high in potassium
• C. I will call my doctor if I begin having menstrual irregularities
• D. I will take this medication at bedtime each evening

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause endocrine effects like menstrual irregularities. Therefore, the patient recognizing the need to report such changes indicates effective teaching. Choices A and B are incorrect as salt substitutes and high-potassium foods should be avoided with spironolactone. Choice D is also incorrect because diuretics, including spironolactone, are ideally taken in the morning to prevent disturbances in sleep due to nocturia.

5. The nurse is unsuccessful in inserting a nasogastric tube for a newborn client. The nurse suspects the newborn has esophageal atresia/tracheoesophageal (EA/TE) fistula. Which nursing action is appropriate while waiting for the healthcare provider to further assess the neonate?

• A. Position the newborn in a semi-Fowler position.
• B. Allow the newborn to stay in the nursery for observation.
• C. Offer the newborn pacifier for comfort.
• D. Wrap the newborn in blankets and place in an incubator.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Positioning the newborn in a semi-Fowler position is appropriate as it helps prevent aspiration in suspected EA/TE fistula. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Placing the newborn in a semi-Fowler position promotes the drainage of secretions and reduces the risk of complications while awaiting further assessment by the healthcare provider.

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