Nursing Elites

1. A Manager decides that setting goals will assist her in better utilizing her time. Which of the following are true regarding goal setting in the Manager role?

• A. Goals need to be measurable, realistic, and achievable to be effective.
• B. Writing goals will increase the stress level of the Manager.
• C. Goals should be vague, so they are more likely to be met.
• D. Setting goals is a time waster in the Manager role.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting goals is beneficial for a Manager as they provide direction and save time. Therefore, goals need to be measurable, realistic, and achievable to be effective. Choice B is incorrect as writing goals does not increase stress but rather helps in time management. Choice C is incorrect because vague goals can lead to confusion and lack of clarity. Choice D is also incorrect as setting goals is a productive activity that aids in time management and achievement.

2. Characteristics that an interviewer will be most interested in when selecting a new staff will be: (EXCEPT)

• A. Your confidence in your clinical skills.
• B. How many hours of overtime you will work.
• C. Your ability to work as a team member.
• D. Your clinical competence.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When selecting new staff, interviewers are primarily interested in candidates' confidence in clinical skills, ability to work as a team member, and clinical competence. They are not concerned with how many hours of overtime a candidate is willing to work. Overtime hours may be important at times, but it is not a characteristic that an interviewer would prioritize when selecting new staff. Choices A, C, and D are essential qualities that interviewers look for in potential staff as they contribute to providing professional nursing care.

3. A 48-year-old male patient screened for diabetes at a clinic has a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L). The nurse will plan to teach the patient about

• A. self-monitoring of blood glucose
• B. using low doses of regular insulin
• C. lifestyle changes to lower blood glucose
• D. effects of oral hypoglycemic medications

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient has a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L), indicating prediabetes, the initial approach is focused on lifestyle modifications to lower blood glucose levels. These changes may include dietary adjustments, increased physical activity, and weight management. Self-monitoring of blood glucose, insulin therapy, and oral hypoglycemic medications are not typically the first-line interventions for patients with prediabetes. Educating the patient about lifestyle changes to lower blood glucose is the most appropriate action at this stage.

4. A resident on night call refuses to answer pages from the staff nurse on the night shift and complains that she calls too often with minor problems. The nurse feels offended and reacts with frequent, middle-of-the-night phone calls to 'get back' at him. The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of what kind of conflict?

• A. Perceived conflict
• B. Disruptive conflict
• C. Competitive conflict
• D. Felt conflict

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Disruptive conflict.' In disruptive conflict, the parties involved are engaged in activities to reduce, defeat, or eliminate the opponent. In this scenario, the resident and the nurse are engaging in behaviors that disrupt their professional relationship by intentionally ignoring pages and making excessive retaliatory calls. Perceived conflict refers to a situation where one or more parties believe that a conflict exists, competitive conflict involves striving to achieve personal goals at the expense of others, and felt conflict refers to the emotional involvement in a conflict situation.

5. A nurse is planning an educational program for a group of older adults at a senior living center. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?

• A. You should receive a pneumococcal vaccine when you are 65 years old.
• B. You should receive a shingles vaccine when you are 70 years old.
• C. You should receive a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• D. You should have an eye examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The CDC recommends a pneumococcal vaccine for all adults aged 65 years and older. This vaccine helps protect against serious pneumococcal disease. Choice B is incorrect as the shingles vaccine is recommended for adults aged 50 years and older, not specifically at 70 years. Choice C is incorrect because a tetanus booster is recommended every 10 years, not every 5 years. Choice D is incorrect as the general recommendation for eye examinations in older adults is annually, not every 2 years.

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