ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. In a male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) prescribed tamsulosin (Flomax), what is the expected therapeutic effect of this medication?
- A. Decreased urinary frequency and urgency
- B. Increased urinary output
- C. Decreased blood pressure
- D. Increased hair growth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased urinary frequency and urgency. Tamsulosin is prescribed for patients with BPH to relax the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck. This relaxation helps in relieving the symptoms of BPH, such as decreased urinary flow, frequent urination, and urgency. Choice B is incorrect because tamsulosin does not increase urinary output but rather improves the flow of urine by relaxing the muscles. Choice C is incorrect as tamsulosin is not primarily used for reducing blood pressure. Choice D is also incorrect as tamsulosin does not promote increased hair growth.
2. A 45-year-old woman has been prescribed conjugated estrogens (Premarin) for the treatment of menopausal symptoms. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?
- A. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
- B. Avoid smoking while taking this medication.
- C. Increase the intake of high-calcium foods.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime to prevent insomnia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid smoking while taking this medication' because patients taking conjugated estrogens should avoid smoking due to the increased risk of cardiovascular events. Increasing fluid intake to prevent dehydration is a good practice but not specifically related to conjugated estrogens. Increasing the intake of high-calcium foods may be beneficial for bone health but is not directly related to the medication. Taking the medication at bedtime to prevent insomnia is not a specific teaching point for conjugated estrogens.
3. An adult patient has begun treatment with fluconazole. The nurse should recognize the need to likely discontinue the drug if the patient develops which of the following signs or symptoms?
- A. Jaundice
- B. Weight gain
- C. Iron deficiency anemia
- D. Hematuria
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Jaundice. Fluconazole, an antifungal medication, can rarely cause hepatotoxicity, which may manifest as jaundice. Monitoring for signs of liver dysfunction, such as jaundice, is crucial during fluconazole therapy. Weight gain, iron deficiency anemia, and hematuria are not commonly associated with fluconazole use and are not indications for discontinuing the drug.
4. Pain in the lower extremities due to peripheral artery disease usually worsens:
- A. with rest because blood flow increases.
- B. with elevation of the extremity because blood is diverted away.
- C. when the leg is in a dependent position because blood pools.
- D. when the leg is touched or massaged because cytokines are released.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In peripheral artery disease, pain in the lower extremities worsens with the elevation of the extremity because it diverts blood flow away from the affected area, exacerbating the pain. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Resting doesn't increase blood flow, a dependent position doesn't lead to blood pooling in this context, and pain worsening due to touch or massage is not a typical feature of peripheral artery disease.
5. A 70-year-old client presents with weakness and sensory loss in the right hand and foot. The client also exhibits speech difficulties. Which condition is the client most likely experiencing?
- A. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
- B. Brain tumor
- C. Cerebral infarction
- D. Multiple sclerosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cerebral infarction (stroke). In this case, the client's symptoms of weakness and sensory loss in the right hand and foot, along with speech difficulties, are indicative of a stroke. These symptoms are commonly seen in individuals experiencing a cerebral infarction, where a blockage in blood flow to the brain leads to neurological deficits. Choices A, B, and D are less likely as transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) typically have temporary symptoms with no permanent damage, brain tumors may present with a different set of symptoms depending on their location, and multiple sclerosis usually presents with a relapsing-remitting pattern of neurological symptoms rather than sudden onset unilateral deficits.
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