Nursing Elites

1. A hospital client is at a high risk of developing bacterial endocarditis. Which of the following prophylactic measures is likely to be most effective?

• A. Avoiding exposure to individuals known to carry the streptococcus bacterium
• B. Daily administration of low-dose corticosteroids
• C. Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure
• D. Routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure is the most effective measure in preventing bacterial endocarditis in at-risk individuals. This measure helps to reduce the risk of bacterial infection during invasive procedures, which can lead to endocarditis. Choice A is incorrect as avoiding exposure to individuals with streptococcus does not address the primary preventive measure needed. Choice B is incorrect as corticosteroids do not prevent bacterial endocarditis, and daily administration is not the recommended prophylactic measure. Choice D is incorrect as routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections are important for other conditions but not specifically for preventing bacterial endocarditis.

2. A male patient with erectile dysfunction has asked for a prescription for sildenafil (Viagra). Before giving this medication, the nurse should assess for which of the following conditions?

• A. History of peptic ulcer disease
• B. Use of nitrates
• C. Recent history of a stroke
• D. History of hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil should not be used by patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates can potentiate the hypotensive effects of sildenafil, leading to a significant drop in blood pressure. Assessing for the use of nitrates is crucial to avoid this potentially dangerous interaction. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not specifically contraindications for the use of sildenafil. While a history of hypertension should be considered, it is not as critical as the use of nitrates when prescribing sildenafil.

3. A 60-year-old male client with a long history of back pain has had little success with a variety of analgesic regimens that his family physician has prescribed. He has recently been diagnosed with a chronic pain disorder. Which teaching points about chronic pain would his physician most likely emphasize to the client?

• A. Chronic pain is often difficult to treat and requires a multimodal approach.
• B. Chronic pain indicates that an underlying injury has not healed properly.
• C. Chronic pain can be managed with a single long-term medication.
• D. Chronic pain is typically less severe than acute pain but lasts longer.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chronic pain is often complex and challenging to treat, necessitating a multimodal approach that may include medication, physical therapy, and behavioral therapy. Choice B is incorrect because chronic pain does not always indicate that an underlying injury has not healed properly; it can persist even after the initial injury has healed. Choice C is incorrect as chronic pain management usually involves a combination of treatments rather than relying solely on a single long-term medication. Choice D is incorrect because chronic pain is not necessarily less severe than acute pain; it can vary in intensity and duration depending on the individual and underlying condition.

4. Interpret the following arterial blood gas results: PH = 7.30; PaCO2 = 55 mmHg; HCO3 = 24 mEq/L

• A. Respiratory acidosis
• B. Metabolic acidosis
• C. Respiratory alkalosis
• D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, there is an accumulation of CO2 in the blood, leading to a decrease in pH. The elevated PaCO2 of 55 mmHg in the given results indicates hypoventilation, causing respiratory acidosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the provided data does not show metabolic acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, or metabolic alkalosis.

5. What is the pathophysiologic process responsible for the decreased glomerular filtration rate in a patient with acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. Decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries
• B. Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation
• C. Necrosis of 70% or more of the nephrons secondary to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure
• D. Scar tissue formation throughout the proximal convoluted tubule secondary to toxin-induced collagen synthesis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation. Acute glomerulonephritis is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys. This inflammation leads to the deposition of immune complexes, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation, which collectively contribute to a decreased glomerular filtration rate. Choice A is incorrect as decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries would not directly result in decreased glomerular filtration rate. Choice C is incorrect as necrosis of nephrons due to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure would affect kidney function differently. Choice D is incorrect as scar tissue formation in the proximal convoluted tubule due to toxin-induced collagen synthesis is not a typical feature of acute glomerulonephritis.

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