Nursing Elites

1. A female client complains of gnawing epigastric pain for a few hours after meals. At times, when the pain is severe, vomiting occurs. Specific tests are indicated to rule out:

• A. Cancer of the stomach
• B. Peptic ulcer disease
• C. Chronic gastritis
• D. Pylorospasm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Specific tests are indicated to rule out cancer of the stomach when a client complains of gnawing epigastric pain and vomiting after meals.

2. The home care nurse is visiting a client with a diagnosis of pernicious anemia that developed as a result of gastric surgery. The nurse instructs the client that because the stomach lining produces a decreased amount of intrinsic factor in this disorder, the client will need

• A. Vitamin B12 injections
• B. Vitamin B6 injections
• C. An antibiotic
• D. An antacid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A lack of intrinsic factor needed to absorb vitamin B12 occurs in pernicious anemia. Vitamin B12 is needed for the maturation of red blood cells. Vitamin B6 is not necessarily needed for pernicious anemia and can be taken orally. An antibiotic and antacids may be prescribed for certain types of gastric ulcers.

3. A 30-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with complaints of severe abdominal cramping and diarrhea. The nurse evaluates the effectiveness of the patient's intravenous therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests BEST reflects hydration status?

• A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
• B. White blood cell count.
• C. Hematocrit.
• D. Serum glucose.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hematocrit is the best indicator of hydration status because it reflects the proportion of red blood cells in the blood. An increased hematocrit indicates dehydration, as the blood becomes more concentrated due to fluid loss. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (Choice A) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation, not hydration status. White blood cell count (Choice B) is an indicator of infection or inflammation. Serum glucose (Choice D) is used to monitor blood sugar levels, not hydration status.

4. A 40-year-old male client has been hospitalized with peptic ulcer disease. He is being treated with a histamine receptor antagonist (cimetidine), antacids, and diet. The nurse doing discharge planning will teach him that the action of cimetidine is to:

• A. Reduce gastric acid output
• B. Protect the ulcer surface
• C. Inhibit the production of hydrochloric acid (HCl)
• D. Inhibit vagus nerve stimulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cimetidine inhibits the production of hydrochloric acid (HCl), which helps to treat peptic ulcer disease.

5. The client has just had surgery to create an ileostomy. The nurse assesses the client in the immediate post-op period for which of the following most frequent complications of this type of surgery?

• A. Intestinal obstruction
• B. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance
• C. Malabsorption of fat
• D. Folate deficiency

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fluid and electrolyte imbalance is a common complication following ileostomy surgery due to the loss of large volumes of fluid and electrolytes through the stoma. Monitoring and replacing fluids and electrolytes is essential.

Similar Questions