Nursing Elites

1. A female client complains of gnawing epigastric pain for a few hours after meals. At times, when the pain is severe, vomiting occurs. Specific tests are indicated to rule out:

• A. Cancer of the stomach
• B. Peptic ulcer disease
• C. Chronic gastritis
• D. Pylorospasm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Specific tests are indicated to rule out cancer of the stomach when a client complains of gnawing epigastric pain and vomiting after meals.

2. Which of the following aspects is the priority focus of nursing management for a client with peritonitis?

• A. Fluid and electrolyte balance
• B. Gastric irrigation
• C. Pain management
• D. Psychosocial issues

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority focus of nursing management for a client with peritonitis is fluid and electrolyte balance to prevent shock.

3. The nurse provides medication instructions to a client with peptic ulcer disease. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates the best understanding of the medication therapy?

• A. The cimetidine (Tagamet) will cause me to produce less stomach acid.
• B. Sucralfate (Carafate) will change the fluid in my stomach.
• C. Antacids will coat my stomach.
• D. Omeprazole (Prilosec) will coat the ulcer and help it heal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cimetidine (Tagamet) works by reducing stomach acid production, which helps to manage peptic ulcer disease.

4. Which of the following terms best describes the pain associated with appendicitis?

• A. Aching
• B. Fleeting
• C. Intermittent
• D. Steady

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Steady. The pain associated with appendicitis is typically constant and steady, especially in the lower right quadrant of the abdomen. It is not described as aching (choice A) because it is more persistent and severe than a dull ache. It is not fleeting (choice B) as appendicitis pain tends to worsen over time. It is also not intermittent (choice C) as the pain is continuous and does not come and go.

5. Kevin has a history of peptic ulcer disease and vomits coffee-ground emesis. What does this indicate?

• A. He has fresh, active upper GI bleeding.
• B. He needs immediate saline gastric lavage.
• C. His gastric bleeding occurred 2 hours earlier.
• D. He needs a transfusion of packed RBCs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Coffee-ground emesis is a sign of upper gastrointestinal bleeding that occurred approximately 2 hours earlier. It results from the breakdown of blood in the stomach due to digestive enzymes, giving it a coffee-ground appearance. Choice A is incorrect because coffee-ground emesis indicates older, partially digested blood, not fresh active bleeding. Choice B is incorrect as gastric lavage is not indicated for coffee-ground emesis. Choice D is incorrect because a transfusion of packed RBCs is not the immediate management for this presentation.

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