Nursing Elites

1. A client with a pneumothorax is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding would indicate that the treatment is effective?

• A. Increased respiratory rate
• B. Decreased oxygen saturation levels
• C. Improved breath sounds on the affected side
• D. Increased dyspnea and chest pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with a pneumothorax receiving oxygen therapy, improved breath sounds on the affected side would indicate effective treatment. This finding suggests that the collapsed lung is re-expanding, allowing air to flow more freely in and out of the affected area. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: Increased respiratory rate, decreased oxygen saturation levels, and increased dyspnea and chest pain are signs of ineffective treatment or worsening of the condition in a client with a pneumothorax.

2. When a child jumps out of the tub, crying and stating her feet are 'burning,' what pathophysiologic principle is responsible for this response?

• A. Pain receptors (nociceptors) have been activated in response to a thermal stimulus.
• B. The child's skin thermal receptors have undergone adaptation.
• C. The child is exhibiting a psychogenic pain response due to anxiety.
• D. The child is experiencing a conditioned pain response based on previous experiences.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The child's reaction is due to the activation of nociceptors, which are pain receptors that respond to thermal stimuli. This response is an immediate protective mechanism to prevent tissue damage caused by extreme temperatures. Option B is incorrect because adaptation does not explain the child's immediate and intense response. Option C is incorrect as there is a clear physical stimulus present, ruling out a psychogenic response. Option D is incorrect as the child's response is not based on previous experiences but rather on the current thermal stimulus.

3. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Pulmonary embolism
• B. Gastrointestinal bleeding
• C. Hemorrhagic stroke
• D. Renal insufficiency

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, pulmonary embolism. In a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) receiving anticoagulant therapy, the nurse should monitor for pulmonary embolism, as it is a serious complication. Pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot dislodges from the veins and travels to the lungs, potentially causing life-threatening consequences. Choices B, gastrointestinal bleeding, C, hemorrhagic stroke, and D, renal insufficiency, are not directly associated with deep vein thrombosis or anticoagulant therapy. While these complications may occur in other situations, they are not the primary concern when managing a client with a history of DVT.

4. A young man has received a diagnosis of androgen deficiency and has been prescribed testosterone. At clinic follow-up appointments, the nurse should prioritize which of the following assessments?

• A. Bladder ultrasound and urine testing for glucose and ketones
• B. Weight and measurement of blood pressure
• C. Hearing assessment and abdominal girth measurement
• D. Deep tendon reflexes and random blood glucose testing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a patient receiving testosterone therapy for androgen deficiency, monitoring weight and blood pressure is crucial. Testosterone therapy can lead to weight gain and hypertension, making regular assessments of these parameters important to detect and manage any adverse effects. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority assessments for a patient on testosterone therapy. Bladder ultrasound and urine testing for glucose and ketones, hearing assessment and abdominal girth measurement, and deep tendon reflexes and random blood glucose testing are not directly related to the common side effects or monitoring requirements of testosterone therapy.

5. A nurse is teaching a class about immune deficiencies, and a person from the audience asks which cells are affected by severe combined immune deficiency (SCID) syndrome, and the nurse answers:

• A. B cell deficits
• B. T cell deficits
• C. Complement deficits
• D. B and T cell deficits

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: B and T cell deficits. Severe combined immune deficiency (SCID) syndrome affects both B and T cells, leading to a severe impairment in the immune system's ability to fight infections. Choice A (B cell deficits) is incorrect because SCID affects not only B cells but also T cells. Choice B (T cell deficits) is incorrect as SCID is characterized by deficits in both B and T cells. Choice C (Complement deficits) is incorrect as SCID primarily involves B and T cell deficiencies rather than complement deficiencies.

Similar Questions