ATI RN
Gastrointestinal System Nursing Exam Questions
1. A client with a history of gastric ulcer suddenly complains of a sharp-severe pain in the mid epigastric area, which then spreads over the entire abdomen. The client’s abdomen is rigid and board-like to palpation, and the client obtains most comfort from lying in the knee-chest position. The nurse calls the physician immediately suspecting that the client is experiencing which of the following complications of peptic ulcer disease?
- A. Perforation
- B. Obstruction
- C. Hemorrhage
- D. Intractability
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The signs and symptoms described in the question are consistent with perforation of the ulcer, which then progresses to peritonitis if the perforation is large enough. The client with intestinal obstruction most likely would complain of abdominal pain, distension, and nausea and vomiting. The client with hemorrhage would be vomiting blood or coffee-ground-like material or would be expelling black, tarry, or bloody stools. Intractability is a term that refers to continued symptoms of a disease process, despite ongoing medical treatment.
2. The nurse has given instructions to the client with an ileostomy about foods to eat to thicken the stool. The nurse determines that the client needs further instructions if the client stated to eat which of the following foods to make the stools less watery?
- A. Pasta
- B. Boiled rice
- C. Bran
- D. Low-fat cheese
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bran is high in fiber and should not be consumed to thicken the stool as it will make the stools more watery.
3. Leigh Ann is receiving pancrelipase (Viokase) for chronic pancreatitis. Which observation best indicates the treatment is effective?
- A. There is no skin breakdown.
- B. Her appetite improves.
- C. She loses more than 10 lbs.
- D. Stools are less fatty and decreased in frequency.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The effectiveness of pancrelipase (Viokase) for chronic pancreatitis is best indicated by stools being less fatty and decreased in frequency.
4. During the assessment of a client’s mouth, the nurse notes the absence of saliva. The client is also complaining of pain near the area of the ear. The client has been NPO for several days because of the insertion of an NG tube. Based on these findings, the nurse suspects that the client is developing which of the following mouth conditions?
- A. Stomatitis
- B. Oral candidiasis
- C. Parotitis
- D. Gingivitis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Parotitis. Parotitis, inflammation of the parotid glands, can occur due to the absence of saliva and dehydration, often associated with being NPO and having an NG tube. Stomatitis (choice A) is inflammation of the oral mucosa, not specifically related to absent saliva. Oral candidiasis (choice B) is a fungal infection that can occur in the mouth, not directly related to the absence of saliva. Gingivitis (choice D) is inflammation of the gums and is not typically associated with the absence of saliva and dehydration.
5. A nurse is providing the client with biliary obstruction a simple overview of the anatomy of the liver and gallbladder. The nurse tells the client that normally the liver stores bile in the gallbladder, which is connected to the liver by the?
- A. Liver canaliculi
- B. Common bile duct
- C. Cystic duct
- D. Right hepatic duct.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The gallbladder receives bile from the liver through the cystic duct. The liver collects bile in the canaliculi. Bile then flows into the common hepatic duct. From the common hepatic duct, the bile can be stored in the gallbladder through the cystic duct. Otherwise, the bile can flow directly into the duodenum by way of the common bile duct.
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