a client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation dic has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mgdl the nurse should take which of the fol
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Oncology Test Bank

1. A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.

2. A clinic patient is being treated for polycythemia vera, and the nurse is providing health education. What practice should the nurse recommend to prevent the complications of this health problem?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Avoiding tight and restrictive clothing on the legs. Patients with polycythemia vera are at risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), so it is essential to avoid tight and restrictive clothing that can impede circulation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because avoiding natural sources of vitamin K, altitudes of 1500 feet, and performing active range of motion exercises are not directly related to preventing complications of polycythemia vera.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a female client who is taking hormone therapy for breast cancer. What assessment finding requires the healthcare professional to notify the primary health care provider immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A red, warm, swollen calf may indicate a deep vein thrombosis, which is a medical emergency. This finding requires immediate notification of the primary health care provider to prevent potential complications such as pulmonary embolism. Choices A, B, and C are not indicative of life-threatening conditions and should be monitored but do not require immediate notification like a suspected deep vein thrombosis.

4. A client with cancer is receiving palliative care. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of palliative care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Palliative care focuses on managing symptoms and improving the quality of life for clients with serious illnesses like cancer. Choice B is incorrect as palliative care can be provided alongside curative treatments. Choice C is incorrect because palliative care does not aim to prolong life at all costs; it focuses on improving the quality of life. Choice D is partially correct but does not fully capture the essence of palliative care, which includes symptom management and holistic support for the client and their family.

5. Nurse Mike is providing care to a client with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). The nurse knows that the client is at risk for tumor lysis syndrome. Which of the following laboratory values requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased uric acid level. In tumor lysis syndrome, rapid cell destruction releases large amounts of potassium, phosphate, and nucleic acids into the bloodstream. Uric acid can accumulate rapidly, leading to hyperuricemia, which can result in kidney damage due to urate crystal deposition. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent renal complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while electrolyte imbalances are common in tumor lysis syndrome, hyperuricemia with potential kidney damage is the priority concern that requires immediate attention.

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