Nursing Elites

1. A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?

• A. Recheck the fibrinogen level in 4 hours
• B. Notify the health care provider
• C. Continue to monitor the client
• D. Administer cryoprecipitate as prescribed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.

2. A patient admitted with cancer asks the nurse about the difference between chemotherapy and radiation therapy. Which of the following responses by the nurse indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. Chemotherapy kills cancer cells
• B. Radiation therapy can be internal or external
• C. Radiation therapy is often external
• D. Chemotherapy is more likely to kill normal cells

Correct answer: D

Rationale: While chemotherapy does affect normal, healthy cells—particularly those that divide rapidly—it is not "more likely" to kill normal cells compared to cancer cells. Chemotherapy targets rapidly dividing cells, which includes both cancer cells and some normal cells (like those in hair follicles, the gastrointestinal tract, and bone marrow). However, its primary goal is to kill cancer cells, and its effects on normal cells are a side effect, not the main function. Therefore, the statement that chemotherapy is "more likely" to kill normal cells is inaccurate and indicates a need for further teaching.

3. A clinic nurse is working with a patient who has a long-standing diagnosis of polycythemia vera. How can the nurse best gauge the course of the patient's disease?

• A. Document the color of the patient's palms and face during each visit.
• B. Follow the patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate over time.
• C. Document the patient's response to erythropoietin injections.
• D. Follow the trends of the patient's hematocrit.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The course of polycythemia vera can be best ascertained by monitoring the patient's hematocrit, which should remain below 45%. Hematocrit levels are a key indicator in assessing the progression of the disease. Choices A, B, and C are not the most appropriate methods for gauging the course of polycythemia vera. Monitoring the color of the patient's palms and face, or their response to erythropoietin injections, may not provide an accurate reflection of the disease's progression. Similarly, while erythrocyte sedimentation rate can be affected in polycythemia vera, it is not the primary marker for monitoring the disease's course.

4. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

• A. Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held?
• B. When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind?
• C. Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this?
• D. Would you say that you've had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

5. The nurse is reviewing the history of a client with bladder cancer. The nurse expects to note documentation of which most common symptom of this type of cancer?

• A. Dysuria
• B. Hematuria
• C. Urgency on urination
• D. Frequency of urination

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hematuria, or blood in the urine, is the most common and distinctive symptom associated with bladder cancer. It can present as either gross hematuria (visible blood) or microscopic hematuria (detected only through urinalysis). The presence of blood in the urine often prompts further evaluation for potential underlying causes, including bladder cancer. It is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize this symptom, as early detection significantly impacts treatment outcomes.

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