a client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation dic has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mgdl the nurse should take which of the fol
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Oncology Test Bank

1. A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.

2. A client with cancer is receiving palliative care. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of palliative care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Palliative care focuses on managing symptoms and improving the quality of life for clients with serious illnesses like cancer. Choice B is incorrect as palliative care can be provided alongside curative treatments. Choice C is incorrect because palliative care does not aim to prolong life at all costs; it focuses on improving the quality of life. Choice D is partially correct but does not fully capture the essence of palliative care, which includes symptom management and holistic support for the client and their family.

3. The public health nurse is presenting a health-promotion class to a group at a local community center. Which intervention most directly addresses the leading cause of cancer deaths in North America?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In North America, lung cancer is the leading cause of cancer deaths among both men and women, and the primary risk factor for lung cancer is smoking. Therefore, promoting smoking cessation is a critical public health intervention that directly addresses this significant health issue. By helping individuals quit smoking, healthcare providers can significantly reduce the incidence of lung cancer and associated deaths, making this intervention a priority in cancer prevention efforts.

4. An oncology nurse is caring for a patient with multiple myeloma who is experiencing bone destruction. When reviewing the patient's most recent blood tests, the nurse should anticipate what imbalance?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypercalcemia. In multiple myeloma, bone destruction can lead to the release of calcium from the bones into the bloodstream, causing hypercalcemia. This imbalance is commonly seen in patients with multiple myeloma. Choice B, Hyperproteinemia, is not typically associated with bone destruction in multiple myeloma. Choice C, Elevated serum viscosity, and Choice D, Elevated RBC count, are not directly related to the bone destruction seen in multiple myeloma.

5. A 50-year-old man diagnosed with leukemia will begin chemotherapy. What would the nurse do to combat the most common adverse effects of chemotherapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer an antiemetic. Chemotherapy commonly causes nausea and vomiting as adverse effects. Antiemetics are medications specifically used to prevent or treat these symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because administering an antimetabolite, a tumor antibiotic, or an anticoagulant would not directly address the most common adverse effects of chemotherapy, which are nausea and vomiting.

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