Nursing Elites

1. A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?

• A. Recheck the fibrinogen level in 4 hours
• B. Notify the health care provider
• C. Continue to monitor the client
• D. Administer cryoprecipitate as prescribed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.

2. The school nurse is teaching a nutrition class in the local high school. One student states that he has heard that certain foods can increase the incidence of cancer. The nurse responds, Research has shown that certain foods indeed appear to increase the risk of cancer. Which of the following menu selections would be the best choice for potentially reducing the risks of cancer?

• A. Smoked salmon and green beans
• B. Pork chops and fried green tomatoes
• C. Baked apricot chicken and steamed broccoli
• D. Liver, onions, and steamed peas

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct choice is 'Baked apricot chicken and steamed broccoli' because fruits and vegetables have been shown to reduce the risk of cancer. Option A, smoked salmon and green beans, although a healthy choice, does not incorporate as many cancer-fighting foods as the correct answer. Option B, pork chops and fried green tomatoes, contains fried food which is associated with increased cancer risk. Option D, liver, onions, and steamed peas, includes organ meats which are not considered beneficial for reducing cancer risk.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer filgrastim to a client undergoing chemotherapy. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

• A. Increase white blood cell production.
• B. Reduce the risk of infection.
• C. Enhance red blood cell production.
• D. Control chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Filgrastim is primarily used to increase white blood cell production in clients undergoing chemotherapy.

4. A client is diagnosed as having a positive reaction to the Mantoux test. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Isolate the client in a private room.
• B. Administer isoniazid (INH) as prescribed.
• C. Schedule the client for a chest x-ray.
• D. Begin a 9-month course of medication therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to schedule the client for a chest x-ray. A positive Mantoux test indicates exposure to TB, but it does not confirm active disease. A chest x-ray is necessary to assess the presence of active TB disease. Isolating the client in a private room (Choice A) is not necessary based solely on a positive Mantoux test result. Administering isoniazid (INH) (Choice B) or beginning a 9-month course of medication therapy (Choice D) is premature without confirming active TB through a chest x-ray.

5. The cells of a normal individual can replicate in a specified rate. If the rate of replication becomes uncontrollable, which of the following is lacking from the patient?

• A. Apoptosis
• B. Contact inhibition
• C. Stable cells
• D. Labile cells

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Contact inhibition is a regulatory mechanism that prevents cells from proliferating once they reach a certain density. Normally, when cells grow and touch each other (such as in a monolayer), they stop dividing, maintaining tissue integrity and structure. When contact inhibition is lacking, as in many cancerous cells, cells continue to grow and divide uncontrollably, leading to tumor formation. This loss of regulation is a hallmark of cancerous growth.

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