Nursing Elites

1. A client who has been receiving radiation therapy for bladder cancer tells the nurse that it feels as if she is voiding through the vagina. The nurse interprets that the client may be experiencing which condition?

• A. Rupture of the bladder
• B. The development of a vesicovaginal fistula
• C. Extreme stress caused by the diagnosis of cancer
• D. Altered perineal sensation as a side effect of radiation therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A vesicovaginal fistula is an abnormal connection between the bladder and the vagina, leading to the passage of urine through the vagina. This condition can occur due to various reasons, including radiation therapy. Choice A, rupture of the bladder, is incorrect because a rupture would present with more severe symptoms and is not consistent with the client's description. Choice C, extreme stress, is incorrect as it does not explain the physical symptom of voiding through the vagina. Choice D, altered perineal sensation, is incorrect as it does not involve a direct connection between the bladder and the vagina.

2. Nurse Rose is caring for a client with cancer who has developed spinal cord compression. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to find?

• A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
• B. Severe headache
• C. Back pain
• D. Loss of bladder control

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Back pain.' Back pain is a common symptom of spinal cord compression in cancer patients. This condition can cause localized or radiating back pain due to the compression of the spinal cord or nerves. While symptoms such as decreased deep tendon reflexes, severe headache, and loss of bladder control can occur in other conditions, back pain is specifically associated with spinal cord compression in cancer patients.

3. A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?

• A. Recheck the fibrinogen level in 4 hours
• B. Notify the health care provider
• C. Continue to monitor the client
• D. Administer cryoprecipitate as prescribed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.

4. As part of chemotherapy education, the nurse teaches a female client about the risk for bleeding and self-care during the period of greatest bone marrow suppression (the nadir). The nurse understands that further teaching is needed if the client makes which statement?

• A. I should avoid blowing my nose.
• B. I may need a platelet transfusion if my platelet count is too low.
• C. I should take aspirin for my headache as soon as I get home.
• D. I will count the number of pads and tampons I use when menstruating.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Taking aspirin is not recommended during periods of bone marrow suppression as it can increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can impair platelet function, further exacerbating the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are all appropriate statements for a client at risk for bleeding and undergoing chemotherapy. Blowing the nose gently, being prepared for a platelet transfusion if needed, and monitoring menstrual bleeding are all important aspects of self-care during this period.

5. Nurse Kent is teaching a male client to perform monthly testicular self-examinations. Which of the following points would be appropriate to make?

• A. Testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer
• B. Testicular cancer is very difficult to diagnose.
• C. Testicular cancer is the number one cause of cancer deaths in males.
• D. Testicular cancer is more common in older men.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Testicular cancer is indeed highly treatable and curable, particularly when detected early through regular self-examinations. The survival rates for testicular cancer are very high, with many cases being treatable even if the cancer has spread, thanks to effective treatment options such as surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy. Educating clients on the importance of early detection through monthly testicular self-examinations can empower them to recognize any changes early, increasing the likelihood of successful treatment.

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