Nursing Elites

1. A client is undergoing chemotherapy and expresses concern about hair loss. What is the best response?

• A. Reassure the client that hair loss is not permanent.
• B. Provide resources for wigs or hairpieces.
• C. Encourage the client to cut their hair short in advance.
• D. Advise the client that chemotherapy causes temporary hair loss.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response when a client undergoing chemotherapy expresses concern about hair loss is to advise them that chemotherapy causes temporary hair loss. This response provides accurate information to the client about the side effect they are experiencing. Choice A is incorrect because it may provide false reassurance as for some individuals, hair loss can be a challenging experience. Choice B is not the best initial response as addressing the client's concerns and providing information should come first. Choice C is not the most appropriate response as cutting hair short may not necessarily prevent hair loss and does not address the client's concerns about the temporary nature of chemotherapy-induced hair loss.

2. A nurse is caring for a female client who has osteoporosis and a new prescription for raloxifene. What should the nurse assess prior to initiating therapy?

• A. Pregnancy status
• B. Bone density
• C. Calcium levels
• D. Blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pregnancy status. Raloxifene is a pregnancy category X drug, which means it can cause serious birth defects. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to assess the client's pregnancy status before initiating therapy. Choice B, bone density, while important in osteoporosis management, is not a specific concern related to initiating raloxifene therapy. Choice C, calcium levels, and choice D, blood pressure, are not directly related to the initiation of raloxifene therapy in a female client with osteoporosis.

3. The nurse is caring for a patient who is at risk for infection. Which action by the nurse indicates correct understanding about standard precautions?

• A. Teaches the patient about good nutrition.
• B. Disposes of an uncapped needle in the designated container.
• C. Wears eyewear when emptying the urinary drainage bag.
• D. Dons gloves when wearing artificial nails.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct understanding of standard precautions includes wearing appropriate personal protective equipment to prevent exposure to body fluids. Wearing eyewear when emptying the urinary drainage bag is crucial as it protects the nurse's eyes from potential splashes of body fluids. Teaching the patient about good nutrition (Choice A) is important for overall health but is not directly related to standard precautions. Disposing of an uncapped needle correctly (Choice B) is part of safe needle handling but does not specifically relate to standard precautions. Donning gloves when wearing artificial nails (Choice D) is not a correct understanding of standard precautions, as artificial nails can harbor microorganisms and increase the risk of infection transmission.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. The amount available is digoxin 0.125 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer?

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 4

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 2. To achieve the prescribed dose of 0.25 mg of digoxin, the nurse should administer two 0.125 mg tablets. This calculation ensures that the patient receives the correct amount of medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate dosage needed based on the available tablets and prescribed dose.

5. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report on a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who has urolithiasis and reports severe ankle pain extending toward the abdomen
• B. A client who has acute cholecystitis and reports abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder
• C. A client who has had a total knee arthroplasty, is 1 day postoperative, and reports a pain level of 8 on a 0 to 10 pain scale
• D. A client who has a fractured femur and reports sudden sharp chest pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client with a fractured femur and sudden chest pain may be experiencing a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment. Choice A is incorrect because although severe pain is present, it is more indicative of musculoskeletal issues related to urolithiasis rather than a life-threatening condition. Choice B, related to acute cholecystitis, is less urgent than choice D as the pain radiating to the right shoulder is a common symptom but does not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Choice C, regarding a client post-total knee arthroplasty with a pain level of 8, is important but not as urgent as a potential pulmonary embolism in choice D.

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