Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving chemotherapy and develops stomatitis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Apply warm compresses to the mouth
• B. Rinse mouth with alcohol-free mouthwash
• C. Increase fluid intake
• D. Clean the mouth gently with a soft toothbrush after meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply warm compresses to the mouth. Stomatitis is an inflammation of the mucous lining in the mouth and can be a side effect of chemotherapy. Warm compresses can help soothe the affected area and promote healing. Choice B is incorrect because alcohol-based mouthwash can further irritate the mouth. Choice C is also a good intervention as increasing fluid intake can help keep the mouth moist and promote healing. However, the most direct intervention for soothing and healing the affected area is applying warm compresses. Choice D is incorrect because using a firm toothbrush can be too harsh and cause further irritation.

2. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed enoxaparin for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis. Which of the following client assessments requires immediate intervention?

• A. Platelet count of 95,000/mm³
• B. Blood pressure of 145/90 mmHg
• C. Heart rate of 95 beats per minute
• D. Pain at the injection site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A platelet count of 95,000/mm³ requires immediate intervention as it is low and increases the risk of bleeding, which is a potential complication of enoxaparin therapy. Low platelet counts can predispose the patient to hemorrhage, and administering anticoagulants like enoxaparin in such cases can further increase the bleeding risk. Monitoring platelet counts is crucial during anticoagulant therapy to prevent serious bleeding complications. The other options do not pose immediate risks related to enoxaparin therapy. A slightly elevated blood pressure, a heart rate of 95 beats per minute, and pain at the injection site are common findings that may not warrant immediate intervention in this context.

3. A client has been prescribed vasopressin for the treatment of diabetes insipidus. What is the expected pharmacologic action of this medication?

• A. To stimulate the pancreas to secrete insulin
• B. To slow the absorption of glucose in the intestine
• C. To increase reabsorption of water in the renal tubules
• D. To increase blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: To increase reabsorption of water in the renal tubules. Vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone (ADH), works by increasing the reabsorption of water in the renal tubules, which helps to concentrate urine and reduce excessive urination in diabetes insipidus. Choice A is incorrect as vasopressin does not stimulate the pancreas to secrete insulin. Choice B is incorrect as vasopressin does not affect the absorption of glucose in the intestine. Choice D is incorrect as vasopressin's primary action is not to increase blood pressure, although it can have some vasoconstrictive effects.

4. A client with an artificial heart valve is prescribed warfarin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of warfarin?

• A. Hemoglobin (Hgb)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Bleeding time
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT). Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the clotting factors dependent on vitamin K, such as factors II, VII, IX, and X. The prothrombin time (PT) measures the extrinsic pathway and is used to monitor the therapeutic effects of warfarin therapy. Monitoring PT helps assess the time it takes for the blood to clot, ensuring that the anticoagulant effect is within the desired range. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hemoglobin (Hgb) measures the amount of hemoglobin in the blood, bleeding time assesses the time it takes for bleeding to stop, and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin therapy.

5. A nurse is caring for a client taking ciprofloxacin for an infection. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the client education?

• A. Constipation
• B. Tendon rupture
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Nasal congestion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tendon rupture. Ciprofloxacin belongs to the fluoroquinolone class of antibiotics, which is associated with the adverse effect of tendon rupture. Tendon rupture is a severe but rare side effect that can occur with the use of ciprofloxacin. Educating the client about this potential adverse effect is crucial to promote awareness and early recognition of symptoms, such as tendon pain, swelling, or inflammation. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use and are less relevant for client education in this scenario.

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