ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1
1. A client is receiving chemotherapy and develops stomatitis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Apply warm compresses to the mouth
- B. Rinse mouth with alcohol-free mouthwash
- C. Increase fluid intake
- D. Clean the mouth gently with a soft toothbrush after meals
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to apply warm compresses to the mouth. Stomatitis is an inflammation of the mucous lining in the mouth and can be a side effect of chemotherapy. Warm compresses can help soothe the affected area and promote healing. Choice B is incorrect because alcohol-based mouthwash can further irritate the mouth. Choice C is also a good intervention as increasing fluid intake can help keep the mouth moist and promote healing. However, the most direct intervention for soothing and healing the affected area is applying warm compresses. Choice D is incorrect because using a firm toothbrush can be too harsh and cause further irritation.
2. A nurse is providing care to a client with staphylococcus epidermidis who is prescribed vancomycin. Identify the adverse effect associated with the antibiotic therapy.
- A. Hepatotoxicity
- B. Constipation
- C. Infusion reaction
- D. Immunosuppression
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Infusion reaction. Vancomycin can cause infusion reactions like 'Red Man Syndrome,' which involves rashes, flushing, tachycardia, and hypotension. Hepatotoxicity (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of vancomycin. Constipation (choice B) is not typically associated with vancomycin use. Immunosuppression (choice D) is not a direct adverse effect of vancomycin therapy.
3. A client has been prescribed isosorbide mononitrate. Which of the following should the nurse include in the client education related to this medication?
- A. This medication is prescribed for long-term therapy prophylaxis against anginal attacks
- B. Do not crush this medication
- C. Take the medication in the evening after dinner
- D. Do not take an additional tablet if you experience chest pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because isosorbide mononitrate is used for long-term prophylaxis against anginal attacks. Choice B is incorrect because isosorbide mononitrate should not be crushed. Choice C does not specify a particular time for medication administration. Choice D is incorrect because isosorbide mononitrate is not meant to be taken as needed for chest pain; it is part of a long-term therapy plan.
4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client receiving gentamicin therapy. Which of the following client assessments is a priority for the healthcare professional to monitor for an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Urinary output
- B. Serum glucose
- C. Respiratory rate
- D. Hearing acuity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hearing acuity. Gentamicin is known to be ototoxic, which means it can cause damage to the auditory system leading to hearing loss. Monitoring hearing acuity is crucial to detect early signs of hearing impairment. Monitoring urinary output (choice A) is important for assessing kidney function but is not directly related to gentamicin's adverse effects. Monitoring serum glucose (choice B) and respiratory rate (choice C) are not specifically associated with gentamicin therapy.
5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the client's history before administering opioid pain medication. Which of the following conditions is a contraindication to opioid therapy?
- A. Asthma
- B. Renal failure
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Obesity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Renal failure is a contraindication to opioid therapy due to the risk of drug accumulation and toxicity. Asthma, diabetes mellitus, and obesity are not contraindications to opioid therapy. Asthma is a respiratory condition that can be managed alongside opioids, diabetes mellitus and obesity do not directly contraindicate opioid therapy.
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