ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client has been prescribed diltiazem (Cardizem) and asks the nurse what type of drug this is. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. “A beta blocker.”
- B. “A sodium channel blocker.”
- C. “An alpha blocker.”
- D. “A calcium channel blocker.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Diltiazem (Cardizem) belongs to the class of drugs known as calcium channel blockers. These medications work by blocking calcium from entering the muscle cells of the heart and blood vessels, leading to relaxation of the blood vessels and reduced workload on the heart. This helps in lowering blood pressure and improving blood flow. It is crucial for the nurse to provide accurate information to the client about the type of drug prescribed to ensure understanding and compliance with the treatment plan.
2. A client has been prescribed a Beta Blocker for hypertension. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypertension
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is the correct answer. Beta Blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as an adverse effect. Monitoring for bradycardia is essential to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Beta Blockers do not typically cause hypertension, hyperglycemia, or hypernatremia as adverse effects.
3. A client has a new prescription for Filgrastim. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Avoid taking this medication with orange juice.
- C. Report bone pain to your healthcare provider.
- D. Expect a persistent cough while taking this medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Report bone pain to your healthcare provider.' Filgrastim is known to cause bone pain as a common side effect. Therefore, it is crucial for clients to report any bone pain to their healthcare provider to monitor for potential complications or the need for further management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking Filgrastim with food, avoiding it with orange juice, and expecting a persistent cough are not relevant instructions associated with this medication.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?
- A. Butorphanol has a greater risk of abuse than morphine.
- B. Butorphanol causes a higher incidence of respiratory depression than morphine.
- C. Butorphanol cannot be reversed with an opioid antagonist.
- D. Butorphanol can cause abstinence syndrome in opioid-dependent clients.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Butorphanol, an opioid agonist/antagonist, can lead to abstinence syndrome in clients who are opioid-dependent. This syndrome may present with symptoms like abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. It is crucial for healthcare professionals to consider this risk when administering Butorphanol to clients with a history of substance use disorder. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol is less likely to be abused than morphine, causes less respiratory depression than morphine, and can be reversed with an opioid antagonist.
5. The client asks the nurse about common side effects of calcium channel blockers. What should the nurse include in client teaching?
- A. Headache
- B. Constipation
- C. Epistaxis
- D. Dysuria
Correct answer: A
Rationale: One of the common side effects of calcium channel blockers is a headache. This is important information for the nurse to include in client teaching as it helps the client understand potential adverse effects of the medication. Constipation, epistaxis, and dysuria are not typically associated with calcium channel blockers.
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