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ATI Nursing Specialty
1. A client comes to the emergency department reporting chest pain that is sharp, knife-like, and localized to an area he points to with one finger. The nurse should document this chest pain as which of the following?
- A. Angina pectoris
- B. Cardiogenic pain
- C. Myocardial infarction
- D. Pleuritic pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Pleuritic pain.' Pleuritic pain is characterized by sharp, knife-like pain that worsens with deep breathing or coughing and is localized to a specific area. This type of pain is often associated with inflammation of the pleura. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Angina pectoris is a type of chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. Cardiogenic pain refers to pain originating from the heart itself. Myocardial infarction is the medical term for a heart attack.
2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD expresses difficulty in bringing up bronchial secretions. Which action should the nurse take to help the client with tenacious bronchial secretions?
- A. Maintaining a semi-Fowler's position as much as possible
- B. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L per min
- C. Helping the client select a low-salt diet
- D. Encouraging the client to drink eight glasses of water daily
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Encouraging the client to drink eight glasses of water daily is the most appropriate action to help with tenacious bronchial secretions in COPD. Increased fluid intake can help in thinning the mucus, making it easier for the client to cough up and clear secretions. This addresses the client's difficulty in bringing up bronchial secretions. Maintaining a semi-Fowler's position can aid in breathing but does not directly address the issue of clearing secretions. Administering oxygen may be necessary for COPD, but it does not specifically target the tenacious secretions. Selecting a low-salt diet can be helpful in managing COPD in general, but it does not directly address the client's current concern of clearing bronchial secretions.
3. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who came to be tested for tuberculosis (TB) after a close family member tested positive. The nurse should know that which of the following is a diagnostic tool used to screen for TB?
- A. Sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus (AFB)
- B. Mantoux skin test
- C. BCG vaccine
- D. Chest X-ray
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The Mantoux skin test, also known as the tuberculin skin test, is a diagnostic tool used to screen for tuberculosis (TB). It involves injecting a small amount of tuberculin under the top layer of the skin on the forearm and then checking for a reaction within 48-72 hours. This test helps identify individuals who have been exposed to the TB bacteria. Sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus (AFB) is used to confirm TB diagnosis in individuals suspected of having active TB. The BCG vaccine is used to prevent severe forms of tuberculosis in high-risk individuals but is not a diagnostic tool. While a chest X-ray can show signs of active TB disease, it is not a primary diagnostic tool for screening purposes.
4. During a home visit, a nurse sees a client with COPD receiving oxygen at 2 L/min through a nasal cannula. The client reports difficulty breathing. What is the priority nursing action at this time?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow to 3 L/min.
- B. Evaluate the client's respiratory status.
- C. Call emergency services for the client.
- D. Instruct the client to cough and clear secretions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority nursing action in this situation is to evaluate the client's respiratory status. When a client with COPD on oxygen therapy experiences difficulty breathing, the nurse should first assess the client's respiratory status to determine the severity of the situation. Increasing the oxygen flow without proper assessment can be harmful if not clinically indicated. While calling emergency services may eventually be necessary, it should not be the immediate action without assessing the client first. Instructing the client to cough and clear secretions is not appropriate as the nurse needs to evaluate the respiratory status before proceeding with interventions.
5. A client hospitalized with deep vein thrombosis has been on IV heparin for 5 days. The provider prescribes oral warfarin (Coumadin) without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
- A. The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.
- B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today
- C. Both heparin and Coumadin work together to dissolve the clots.
- D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the Coumadin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.' Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant that takes time to reach its full effect, typically a few days. In the meantime, IV heparin is used to provide immediate anticoagulation until the Coumadin levels become therapeutic. Option B is incorrect because discontinuing the IV heparin abruptly without reaching a therapeutic level with Coumadin can increase the risk of clot formation. Option C is incorrect because heparin and Coumadin do not work together to dissolve clots; they both have anticoagulant effects but work differently. Option D is incorrect because IV heparin does not directly increase the effects of Coumadin; they have different mechanisms of action.
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