Nursing Elites

1. A child is admitted with renal failure. Which of these findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased BUN
• B. Azotemia and oliguria
• C. Increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
• D. Polyuria and elevated creatinine clearance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Azotemia (elevated BUN and creatinine) and oliguria (reduced urine output) are classic signs of renal failure, indicating impaired kidney function. In renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products, leading to an increase in BUN and creatinine levels in the blood. Additionally, oliguria occurs due to decreased kidney function. Increased GFR (Choice C) is not expected in renal failure as it signifies improved kidney function, which is not the case in renal failure. Polyuria and elevated creatinine clearance (Choice D) are not typical findings in renal failure. Polyuria is more commonly associated with conditions like diabetes insipidus, while elevated creatinine clearance would indicate increased kidney function, which is contrary to the impaired function seen in renal failure.

2. An infant has been diagnosed with bladder obstruction. What do symptoms of this disorder include?

• A. Renal colic
• B. Strong urinary stream
• C. Urinary tract infections
• D. Post urination dribbling

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Post-urination dribbling is a symptom of bladder obstruction due to the incomplete emptying of the bladder. A strong urinary stream is typically absent in such cases. UTIs are common, but dribbling is more directly related to the obstruction.

3. Pertussis vaccination should begin at which age?

• A. Birth
• B. 2 months
• C. 6 months
• D. 12 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The DTaP vaccine, which includes pertussis, is typically started at 2 months of age as part of the recommended immunization schedule.

4. The Denver II is a test used to assess children. What does it evaluate?

• A. Behavior problems
• B. Developmental status
• C. Body mass index
• D. Infection likelihood

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Denver II Developmental Screening Test is used to assess a child's development in four areas: personal-social, fine motor-adaptive, language, and gross motor skills. It helps identify children who may need further evaluation. Choice A, behavior problems, is incorrect as the Denver II primarily focuses on developmental milestones rather than behavior. Choice C, body mass index, is unrelated to the assessment of child development. Choice D, infection likelihood, is also not evaluated by the Denver II test.

5. According to Piaget, which principle supports a nine-year-old child's understanding that an arm will look the same when the IV is removed?

• A. The principle of conservation
• B. The principle of transductive reasoning
• C. The principle of identity
• D. The principle of reflex abilities

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, the principle of conservation. Piaget's principle of conservation relates to a child's ability to understand that certain properties of objects remain unchanged despite modifications in their appearance. In this case, the child's understanding that an arm will look the same after the IV is removed demonstrates conservation of appearance. Choice B, transductive reasoning, involves making faulty generalizations based on specific instances and does not apply in this context. Choice C, the principle of identity, pertains to recognizing objects as the same even if they undergo transformations, which is not directly relevant to the scenario. Choice D, reflex abilities, refers to automatic responses to stimuli and is unrelated to the child's understanding of the arm's appearance post-IV removal.

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