Nursing Elites

1. A child is admitted with renal failure. Which of these findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased BUN
• B. Azotemia and oliguria
• C. Increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
• D. Polyuria and elevated creatinine clearance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Azotemia (elevated BUN and creatinine) and oliguria (reduced urine output) are classic signs of renal failure, indicating impaired kidney function. In renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products, leading to an increase in BUN and creatinine levels in the blood. Additionally, oliguria occurs due to decreased kidney function. Increased GFR (Choice C) is not expected in renal failure as it signifies improved kidney function, which is not the case in renal failure. Polyuria and elevated creatinine clearance (Choice D) are not typical findings in renal failure. Polyuria is more commonly associated with conditions like diabetes insipidus, while elevated creatinine clearance would indicate increased kidney function, which is contrary to the impaired function seen in renal failure.

2. The nurse is caring for a child with acute renal failure. What laboratory findings should the nurse expect to find? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. All are applicable
• D. Elevated blood urea nitrogen level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure, laboratory findings typically include hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, and elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels due to the kidneys' inability to excrete waste and balance electrolytes. Metabolic alkalosis is less common, with metabolic acidosis being more typical.

3. What do the clinical manifestations of minimal change nephrotic syndrome include?

• A. Hematuria, bacteriuria, and weight gain
• B. Gross hematuria, albuminuria, and fever
• C. Hypertension, weight loss, and proteinuria
• D. Massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Minimal change nephrotic syndrome is characterized by massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema due to the loss of protein in the urine. Hematuria, bacteriuria, and weight loss are not typical features of this condition.

4. At what point in the hospitalization of the pediatric patient should discharge planning and teaching begin?

• A. Post-operatively
• B. Right when the patient is being discharged with the parents and support members present
• C. On the morning that the patient is scheduled to go home
• D. On admission

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Discharge planning should begin on admission to ensure that all necessary teaching and preparations are completed in a timely manner. Starting discharge planning early allows for a comprehensive assessment of the patient's needs, coordination with the healthcare team, and adequate time for patient and family education. Choice A, post-operatively, is too late in the process and may lead to rushed planning. Choice B, right at discharge, may not allow enough time for thorough preparation. Choice C, on the morning of discharge, also does not provide sufficient time for effective planning and education.

5. Which disease requires strict isolation due to its mode of transmission?

• A. Mumps
• B. Chickenpox
• C. Exanthema subitum (roseola)
• D. Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Chickenpox (choice B). Chickenpox is highly communicable and requires strict isolation to prevent the spread of the virus through direct contact, droplet transmission, and contaminated objects. Mumps (choice A) is also contagious but does not typically require strict isolation. Exanthema subitum (roseola) (choice C) and Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease) (choice D) are not as highly contagious as chickenpox and do not necessitate strict isolation.

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