Nursing Elites

1. Which is usually the only symptom of pediculosis capitis (head lice)?

• A. Itching
• B. Vesicles
• C. Scalp rash
• D. Localized inflammatory response

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Itching is typically the primary and most common symptom of pediculosis capitis due to the lice bites on the scalp.

2. What is the appropriate placement of a tongue blade for assessment of the mouth and throat?

• A. On the lower jaw
• B. Side of the tongue
• C. Against the soft palate
• D. Center back area of the tongue

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The side of the tongue is the appropriate place for a tongue blade to avoid triggering the gag reflex during assessment of the mouth and throat.

3. When should the nurse instruct parents to administer a daily proton pump inhibitor to their child with gastroesophageal reflux?

• A. At bedtime
• B. With a meal
• C. Midmorning
• D. 30 minutes before breakfast

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) like omeprazole or lansoprazole are most effective when given 30 minutes before breakfast. This timing allows the medication to inhibit the proton pumps in the stomach that produce acid, providing better symptom control throughout the day. Administering the PPI at bedtime (choice A) may not be as effective as giving it before breakfast due to the timing of peak acid production during the day. Giving it with a meal (choice B) might affect the absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Midmorning administration (choice C) is not the recommended time for optimal PPI efficacy.

4. What is the earliest age at which a satisfactory radial pulse can be taken in children?

• A. 1 year
• B. 2 years
• C. 3 years
• D. 6 years

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A satisfactory radial pulse can typically be taken starting at around 3 years of age, as younger children often have pulses that are too fast and irregular for accurate measurement.

5. A child diagnosed with aplastic anemia is admitted to the hospital. The parents ask the nurse what aplastic anemia is. Which response by the nurse is accurate?

• A. Aplastic anemia causes a proliferation of white blood cells.
• B. Aplastic anemia is characterized by abnormally shaped red blood cells.
• C. Aplastic anemia is caused by the bone marrow producing inadequate cells.
• D. Aplastic anemia is a disorder that occurs after a viral illness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Aplastic anemia is a condition where the bone marrow fails to produce sufficient red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, leading to pancytopenia. This can result in fatigue, infections, and bleeding tendencies. It is not characterized by abnormal red blood cell shapes, but rather by a reduction in the production of blood cells. Therefore, the accurate response is that aplastic anemia is caused by the bone marrow producing inadequate cells. Choices A and B are incorrect as aplastic anemia does not cause a proliferation of white blood cells or involve abnormally shaped red blood cells. Choice D is incorrect as aplastic anemia is not typically a disorder that occurs after a viral illness.

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