Nursing Elites

1. A child is admitted in acute renal failure (ARF). Therapeutic management to rapidly provoke a flow of urine includes the administration of what medication?

• A. Propranolol (Inderal)
• B. Calcium gluconate
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol) or furosemide (Lasix)
• D. Sodium, chloride, and potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Mannitol and furosemide are diuretics commonly used to induce diuresis in acute renal failure, helping to provoke urine flow and manage fluid overload. Calcium gluconate and electrolyte supplementation are used for other specific conditions and not primarily for diuresis.

2. In general, how much is a child that was 10 pounds at birth expected to weigh at 6 months old?

• A. Double = 20 lbs
• B.
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A child is expected to double their birth weight by 6 months. This is a common guideline used to monitor healthy growth and development in infants. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not provide the expected weight based on the given information.

3. In assessing sexual maturity levels, which tool would you expect to use?

• A. Denver II Developmental Screening
• B. Tanner staging
• C. Antibody testing
• D. Nursing process

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tanner staging. Tanner staging is a tool specifically used to assess sexual maturity in adolescents based on the development of secondary sexual characteristics. The Tanner scale ranges from stage 1 (prepubertal) to stage 5 (adult maturity). This tool helps healthcare providers evaluate the physical development and sexual maturation of individuals. Choice A, the Denver II Developmental Screening, is used to assess developmental milestones in children. Choice C, antibody testing, is a diagnostic tool used to detect the presence of specific antibodies in the blood. Choice D, the nursing process, is a systematic method that nurses use to deliver patient-centered care, involving assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation.

4. What findings on physical assessment of a neonate would indicate the need for further evaluation?

• A. Nystagmus
• B. Epstein pearls
• C. Low-set ears
• D. Positive Babinski reflex

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Low-set ears in a neonate suggest major abnormalities and should prompt further evaluation. The correct alignment of the top of the pinnae of the ear with the outer canthus of the eye is crucial. Nystagmus, an involuntary eye movement, is common in newborns and often resolves on its own. Epstein pearls, small cysts on the hard palate, are insignificant and disappear over time. A positive Babinski reflex is normal in infants up to 1 year of age. Therefore, the presence of low-set ears is the most concerning finding that requires immediate attention.

5. Which pediatric disorder is associated with a 'boot-shaped' heart on a chest x-ray?

• A. Tetralogy of Fallot
• B. Transposition of the great arteries
• C. Coarctation of the aorta
• D. Ventricular septal defect

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tetralogy of Fallot. Tetralogy of Fallot is often associated with a 'boot-shaped' heart appearance on a chest x-ray due to the characteristic heart anatomy in this condition. This appearance is caused by the combination of pulmonary stenosis, overriding aorta, ventricular septal defect, and right ventricular hypertrophy. Choice B, Transposition of the great arteries, is incorrect because it presents with a 'egg-on-a-string' appearance on x-ray due to the abnormal position of the aorta and pulmonary artery. Choice C, Coarctation of the aorta, typically presents with rib notching on x-ray. Choice D, Ventricular septal defect, does not produce the 'boot-shaped' heart appearance seen in Tetralogy of Fallot.

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