Nursing Elites

1. A 65-year-old male patient was admitted to a medical-surgical unit 72 hours ago with pyloric stenosis; a nasogastric tube was inserted upon admission and has been on low intermittent suction since then. The nurse taking care of the patient notices that his potassium is very low and becomes concerned that the patient may be at risk for:

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Metabolic acidosis
• C. Metabolic alkalosis
• D. Respiratory acidosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, metabolic alkalosis. The patient with pyloric stenosis has been on low intermittent suction, leading to the loss of hydrogen and chloride ions. This condition causes metabolic alkalosis due to the removal of these ions. Options A (Hypercalcemia) and D (Respiratory acidosis) are incorrect as they are not directly related to the scenario described. Option B (Metabolic acidosis) is also incorrect; in this case, the patient is at risk of metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of hydrogen and chloride ions through gastric suction.

2. A nurse preparing to start an IV on a newly admitted patient teaches the patient about the procedure and begins to prepare the site. The nurse should always start by:

• A. Leaving one hand ungloved to assess the site
• B. Preparing the skin with an iodine solution
• C. Asking the patient if they are allergic to latex or iodine
• D. Removing excessive hair at the selected site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before preparing the skin, the nurse should ask the patient if they are allergic to latex or iodine, which are commonly used in IV therapy setup. This is crucial to prevent potential allergic reactions at the IV site or even life-threatening anaphylaxis. Leaving one hand ungloved (choice A) is not a recommended practice as both hands should be gloved for infection control. While preparing the skin with an iodine solution (choice B) is a step in the process, ensuring the patient's safety by checking for allergies comes first. Removing excessive hair at the selected site (choice D) is not necessary and can lead to skin irritation.

3. A nurse is assessing a client with hypokalemia and notes that the client's handgrip strength has diminished since the previous assessment 1 hour ago. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Assess the client's respiratory rate, rhythm, and depth.
• B. Measure the client's pulse and blood pressure.
• C. Document findings and monitor the client.
• D. Call the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with hypokalemia experiencing diminished handgrip strength, the priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's respiratory rate, rhythm, and depth. Hypokalemia can lead to muscle weakness, including respiratory muscles, potentially causing respiratory distress. Assessing the respiratory status is crucial to determine if immediate interventions are needed to maintain adequate oxygenation. Measuring the client's pulse and blood pressure (Choice B) is important but should come after assessing the respiratory status. Simply documenting findings and monitoring the client (Choice C) may delay necessary interventions. Calling the healthcare provider (Choice D) is not the first action indicated in this situation; assessing the client's respiratory status takes precedence.

4. A gerontologic nurse is teaching students about the high incidence and prevalence of dehydration in older adults. What factors contribute to this phenomenon? Select all that do not apply.

• A. Decreased kidney mass
• B. Decreased renal blood flow
• C. Decreased excretion of potassium
• D. Increased conservation of sodium

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

5. A 73-year-old man who slipped on a small carpet in his home and fell on his hip is alert and oriented; PERRLA (pupils equally round and reactive to light and accommodation) is intact, and he has come by ambulance to the emergency department (ED). Heart rate elevated, he is anxious and thirsty. A Foley catheter is in place and 40mL of urine is present. The nurse's most likely explanation for the urine output is:

• A. The man urinated prior to his arrival in the ED and will probably not need to have the Foley catheter kept in place.
• B. The man has a brain injury, lacks ADH, and needs vasopressin.
• C. The man is in heart failure and is releasing atrial natriuretic peptide, which results in decreased urine output.
• D. He is having a sympathetic reaction, which has stimulated the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system that results in diminished urine output.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Renin is released by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidneys in response to decreased renal perfusion. Angiotensin-converting enzyme converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II, with its vasoconstrictor properties, increases arterial perfusion pressure and stimulates thirst. As the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, aldosterone is released in response to an increased release of renin, which decreases urine production. Based on the nursing assessment and mechanism of injury, this is the most likely cause of the lower urine output. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no indication of urination prior to arrival, brain injury, lack of ADH, or heart failure present in the scenario provided. The symptoms and context described point more towards a physiological response related to the sympathetic nervous system and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system rather than the other conditions mentioned.

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