Nursing Elites

1. A 62-year-old woman diagnosed with breast cancer is scheduled for a partial mastectomy. The oncology nurse explained that the surgeon will want to take tissue samples to ensure the disease has not spread to adjacent axillary lymph nodes. The patient has asked if she will have her lymph nodes dissected, like her mother did several years ago. What alternative to lymph node dissection will this patient most likely undergo?

• A. Lymphadenectomy
• B. Needle biopsy
• C. Open biopsy
• D. Sentinel node biopsy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sentinel lymph node biopsy is a minimally invasive alternative to more extensive lymph node dissection. This procedure involves identifying and removing the first lymph node(s) to which a tumor drains, known as the sentinel node(s), to determine if cancer has spread beyond the primary site. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because lymphadenectomy refers to the surgical removal of lymph nodes, needle biopsy involves sampling tissue with a needle for analysis, and open biopsy refers to the surgical removal of a sample of tissue for examination, none of which specifically serve as an alternative to lymph node dissection in this context.

2. An oncology nurse is providing health education for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with leukemia. What should the nurse explain about commonalities between all of the different subtypes of leukemia?

• A. The different leukemias all involve unregulated proliferation of white blood cells.
• B. The different leukemias all have unregulated proliferation of red blood cells and decreased bone marrow function.
• C. The different leukemias all result in a decrease in the production of white blood cells.
• D. The different leukemias all involve the development of cancer in the lymphatic system.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Leukemia commonly involves unregulated proliferation of white blood cells.

3. A patient with non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) is receiving treatment. What is the most important assessment for the nurse to make in this patient?

• A. Skin integrity
• B. Nutritional status
• C. Respiratory function
• D. Cognitive function

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory function. In a patient with non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL), monitoring respiratory function is crucial due to the potential for complications such as pleural effusion or pneumonia. Assessing skin integrity (choice A) is important but not as critical as monitoring respiratory function in this case. Nutritional status (choice B) and cognitive function (choice D) are also important aspects of care but do not take precedence over assessing respiratory function in a patient with NHL undergoing treatment.

4. The nurse is instructing the 35 year old client to perform a testicular self-examination. The nurse tells the client:

• A. To examine the testicles while lying down
• B. That the best time for the examination is after a shower
• C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
• D. That testicular self-examination should be done at least every 6 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best time to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE) is after a warm shower or bath. The heat from the water relaxes the scrotal skin, making it easier to feel any abnormalities, lumps, or changes in the testicles. This relaxation allows for a more thorough and accurate examination.

5. A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe?

• A. Pruritis (itching)
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Altered glucose metabolism
• D. Confusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are among the most common and distressing side effects of chemotherapy. Chemotherapy drugs target rapidly dividing cells, including cancer cells, but they also affect healthy cells in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, triggering the release of chemicals that stimulate the brain’s vomiting center. These side effects can occur immediately (acute), be delayed, or even anticipatory, and often require management with antiemetic (anti-nausea) medications to improve the patient’s comfort and quality of life during treatment.

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