Nursing Elites

1. A 55-year-old man presents with a history of fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He reports recent onset of a productive cough and hemoptysis. Which condition should the nurse suspect?

• A. Lung cancer
• B. Pneumonia
• C. Tuberculosis
• D. Pulmonary embolism

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tuberculosis. The symptoms described - fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, productive cough, and hemoptysis - are classic manifestations of tuberculosis. Tuberculosis is an infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, commonly affecting the lungs but can also involve other organs. **Choice A: Lung cancer** typically presents with symptoms like persistent cough, chest pain, and shortness of breath, but it is less likely in this case due to the presence of hemoptysis. **Choice B: Pneumonia** can present with productive cough, fever, and chest pain, but it is less likely given the chronicity of symptoms and the presence of hemoptysis. **Choice D: Pulmonary embolism** usually presents with sudden onset shortness of breath, chest pain, and can be associated with risk factors like recent surgery or immobility.

2. An older adult patient has asked her primary care provider for a prescription that will help to resolve her “warped toenails.” The care provider has diagnosed the woman with onychomycosis. The nurse should anticipate that this patient will be treated with what drug?

• A. Micafungin (Mycamine)
• B. Terbinafine (Lamisil)
• C. Voriconazole (Vfend)
• D. Fluconazole (Diflucan)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Terbinafine (Lamisil). Terbinafine is commonly used to treat onychomycosis, a fungal infection of the toenails or fingernails. It works by stopping the growth of the fungus. Micafungin (Mycamine) is an antifungal medication used for different types of fungal infections but is not typically used to treat onychomycosis. Voriconazole (Vfend) is another antifungal medication used for specific fungal infections, but it is not a first-line treatment for onychomycosis. Fluconazole (Diflucan) is also an antifungal medication, but it is more commonly used for yeast infections and may not be as effective for treating onychomycosis compared to terbinafine.

3. Which of the following are characteristic, localized cardinal signs of acute inflammation? (Select ONE that does not apply.)

• A. Redness
• B. Fatigue
• C. Swelling
• D. Warmth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answers are A, C, and D. Redness, swelling, and warmth are classic signs of acute inflammation. Redness occurs due to increased blood flow, swelling is caused by leakage of fluid into tissues, and warmth is due to the vasodilation and increased blood flow in the affected area. Fatigue is not a cardinal sign of acute inflammation and is not directly associated with the inflammatory response.

4. Identify which conditions are due to excessive immune response.

• A. Allergies and onychomycosis
• B. Type II diabetes and smallpox
• C. Chronic renal failure and macular degeneration
• D. Allergies and rheumatoid arthritis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Allergies and rheumatoid arthritis. Allergies are caused by an excessive immune response to harmless substances, while rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disorder where the immune system attacks the body's tissues, leading to inflammation and joint damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Onychomycosis is a fungal infection of the nails, Type II diabetes is a metabolic disorder not primarily related to immune response, smallpox is a viral infection, chronic renal failure is a kidney condition, and macular degeneration is an eye disorder, none of which are directly linked to excessive immune response.

5. Women who have breast cancer due to a BRCA1 gene mutation are usually:

• A. positive for human epidermal growth factor receptor 1 and 2.
• B. negative for estrogen receptor.
• C. positive for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2.
• D. negative for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Women with breast cancer due to a BRCA1 gene mutation commonly have a triple-negative breast cancer subtype, which means they are negative for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2). This subtype tends to be more aggressive and harder to treat. Choice A is incorrect as they are typically negative for HER2. Choice B is incorrect because they are usually negative for estrogen receptor. Choice C is incorrect as they are usually negative for progesterone receptor and HER2.

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