a 42 year old female patient with hiv has been receiving antiretroviral therapy for several years and her care team has recently added raltegravir ise
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam

1. When evaluating the success of adding raltegravir to the drug regimen of a 42-year-old female patient with HIV, which laboratory value should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient's viral load. In HIV management, monitoring the viral load is crucial to assess the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy. A decrease in viral load indicates the treatment's success in controlling the HIV infection. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in this context. C-reactive protein levels and erythrocyte sedimentation rate are markers of inflammation and non-specific indicators of infection, not specifically for HIV. CD4 count is important but not as immediate for evaluating the response to the newly added medication compared to monitoring the viral load.

2. What part of the heart is responsible for starting the electrical impulse to conduct a heart rhythm and contraction of the atria and ventricles?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The sinoatrial node (SA node) in the atrium is indeed responsible for initiating the electrical impulse that starts the heart's rhythm. The SA node is known as the heart's natural pacemaker. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while the Purkinje fibers, bundle branches, and atrioventricular node play crucial roles in the conduction of the electrical impulse throughout the heart, the SA node is specifically responsible for initiating this impulse.

3. A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia is associated with a congenital intrinsic factor deficiency, leading to the impaired absorption of vitamin B12. Iron deficiency anemia (Choice A) is not directly related to intrinsic factor deficiency. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice B) is characterized by defective iron uptake by developing erythrocytes and is not linked to intrinsic factor deficiency. Hemolytic anemia (Choice D) involves the premature destruction of red blood cells and is not specifically associated with intrinsic factor deficiency.

4. A 60-year-old male patient presents with severe and persistent pain in his left leg and hip that worsens with activity. After further evaluation, the patient is diagnosed with osteosarcoma. Which of the following is true about osteosarcoma?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Osteosarcoma is a type of bone cancer that can be found in any bone but is most commonly located in the long bones of the legs. While it is more prevalent in children and young adults, it can also occur in older individuals like the 60-year-old male patient in this case. Early diagnosis is crucial for a better prognosis in osteosarcoma cases. Therefore, all the statements provided are true regarding osteosarcoma, making option D the correct answer. Option A is accurate as osteosarcoma is more common in children and young adults. Option B is correct as early diagnosis improves the prognosis. Option C is accurate as osteosarcoma is frequently located in the leg bones.

5. A staff member asks what leukocytosis means. How should the nurse respond? Leukocytosis can be defined as:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Leukocytosis refers to an abnormally high leukocyte count. This condition is characterized by an elevated number of white blood cells in the bloodstream. Choice A is incorrect because leukocytosis does not refer to a normal leukocyte count. Choice C is incorrect as leukocytosis is not related to a low leukocyte count. Choice D is incorrect as leukopenia is the opposite of leukocytosis, indicating a low white blood cell count.

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