Nursing Elites

1. When evaluating the success of adding raltegravir to the drug regimen of a 42-year-old female patient with HIV, which laboratory value should the nurse prioritize?

• A. The patient's C-reactive protein levels
• B. The patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
• C. The patient's viral load
• D. The patient's CD4 count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient's viral load. In HIV management, monitoring the viral load is crucial to assess the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy. A decrease in viral load indicates the treatment's success in controlling the HIV infection. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in this context. C-reactive protein levels and erythrocyte sedimentation rate are markers of inflammation and non-specific indicators of infection, not specifically for HIV. CD4 count is important but not as immediate for evaluating the response to the newly added medication compared to monitoring the viral load.

2. Anemia of chronic inflammation is generally classified as:

• A. hypochromic and microcytic.
• B. hypochromic and macrocytic.
• C. normochromic and microcytic.
• D. normochromic and normocytic.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anemia of chronic inflammation is characterized by normochromic and normocytic red blood cells. In chronic inflammation, the body typically produces enough red blood cells, but they are often smaller and paler than normal (normocytic and normochromic). Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because hypochromic and microcytic, hypochromic and macrocytic, and normochromic and microcytic anemias are not typically associated with chronic inflammation.

3. A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. Her thyroid function tests reveal low T3 and T4 levels and elevated TSH levels. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Hyperthyroidism
• B. Hypothyroidism
• C. Euthyroid sick syndrome
• D. Subclinical hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The scenario describes a 45-year-old woman with fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, low T3 and T4 levels, and elevated TSH levels, which are indicative of hypothyroidism. In hypothyroidism, there is decreased production of thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) leading to elevated TSH levels as the pituitary gland tries to stimulate the thyroid gland to produce more hormones. Therefore, the correct answer is hypothyroidism (Choice B). Choice A, Hyperthyroidism, is incorrect as the patient's symptoms and thyroid function tests point towards decreased thyroid hormone levels, which is characteristic of hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. Choice C, Euthyroid sick syndrome, is incorrect because this condition typically presents with normal to low T3 and T4 levels in the setting of non-thyroid illness, unlike the elevated TSH levels observed in this case. Choice D, Subclinical hyperthyroidism, is also incorrect as the patient has low T3 and T4 levels, which is not consistent with hyperthyroidism, whether clinical or subclinical.

4. Which disorder is caused by a Staphylococcus aureus organism producing a toxin leading to exfoliation and large blister formation?

• A. Herpes simplex I virus
• B. Bullous impetigo
• C. Necrotizing fasciitis
• D. Cellulitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bullous impetigo is the correct answer because it is caused by a Staphylococcus aureus toxin that leads to exfoliation and the formation of large blisters. Herpes simplex I virus (Choice A) causes cold sores and is not associated with exfoliation and blister formation. Necrotizing fasciitis (Choice C) is a severe skin infection involving the deeper layers of skin and subcutaneous tissues, typically caused by bacteria such as Streptococcus or Clostridium species, not Staphylococcus aureus. Cellulitis (Choice D) is a common bacterial skin infection, but it does not involve exfoliation and blister formation as seen in bullous impetigo.

5. Following a knee injury, a football player is taking ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, for the control of pain. Which drug action is most likely to result in diminished sensation of pain for the player?

• A. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes
• B. Activation of opioid receptors
• C. Blocking of NMDA receptors
• D. Stimulation of serotonin receptors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes. Ibuprofen works by inhibiting these enzymes, which are involved in the production of prostaglandins that mediate pain and inflammation. This inhibition leads to decreased prostaglandin production, resulting in a decrease in pain and inflammation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because ibuprofen does not act on opioid receptors, NMDA receptors, or serotonin receptors to control pain. It primarily exerts its analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects through COX enzyme inhibition.

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