Nursing Elites

1. When evaluating the success of adding raltegravir to the drug regimen of a 42-year-old female patient with HIV, which laboratory value should the nurse prioritize?

• A. The patient's C-reactive protein levels
• B. The patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
• C. The patient's viral load
• D. The patient's CD4 count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient's viral load. In HIV management, monitoring the viral load is crucial to assess the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy. A decrease in viral load indicates the treatment's success in controlling the HIV infection. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in this context. C-reactive protein levels and erythrocyte sedimentation rate are markers of inflammation and non-specific indicators of infection, not specifically for HIV. CD4 count is important but not as immediate for evaluating the response to the newly added medication compared to monitoring the viral load.

2. A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has?

• A. Sideroblastic anemia
• B. Hemolytic anemia
• C. Pernicious anemia
• D. Iron deficiency anemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hemolytic anemia. Normocytic-normochromic anemia is a type of anemia characterized by normal-sized and normal-colored red blood cells. Hemolytic anemia is a condition where red blood cells are destroyed prematurely, leading to normocytic-normochromic anemia. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice A) is characterized by ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow. Pernicious anemia (Choice C) is due to vitamin B12 deficiency. Iron deficiency anemia (Choice D) is characterized by microcytic-hypochromic red blood cells.

3. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Pulmonary embolism
• B. Gastrointestinal bleeding
• C. Hemorrhagic stroke
• D. Renal insufficiency

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, pulmonary embolism. In a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) receiving anticoagulant therapy, the nurse should monitor for pulmonary embolism, as it is a serious complication. Pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot dislodges from the veins and travels to the lungs, potentially causing life-threatening consequences. Choices B, gastrointestinal bleeding, C, hemorrhagic stroke, and D, renal insufficiency, are not directly associated with deep vein thrombosis or anticoagulant therapy. While these complications may occur in other situations, they are not the primary concern when managing a client with a history of DVT.

4. Staff at the care facility note that a woman has started complaining of back pain in recent weeks and occasionally groans in pain. She has many comorbidities that require several prescription medications. The nurse knows that which factor is likely to complicate the clinician's assessment and treatment of the client's pain?

• A. Her advanced age may influence the expression and perception of pain.
• B. Her polypharmacy may complicate the pain management process.
• C. Her underlying conditions may mask or exacerbate the pain.
• D. Her cognitive function may decline, making pain assessment difficult.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Polypharmacy, or the use of multiple medications, can complicate pain management due to drug interactions and side effects. While advanced age can influence pain perception, it is not the most likely factor to complicate assessment and treatment in this scenario. Underlying conditions may affect pain perception but do not directly complicate the management process. Cognitive decline can hinder pain assessment, but in this case, the focus is on factors directly impacting the treatment process, making option B the most appropriate choice.

5. A patient with endometriosis is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera). What should the nurse include in the patient education?

• A. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• B. Medroxyprogesterone can be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
• C. Medroxyprogesterone should be discontinued if side effects occur.
• D. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken once a week to maintain effectiveness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When educating a patient with endometriosis who is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera), the nurse should emphasize the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day. This helps maintain consistent hormone levels and ensures the effectiveness of the treatment. Option A is correct. Option B is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone should be taken consistently, regardless of food intake. Option C is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be harmful. Option D is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone is typically taken daily, not weekly, for the treatment of endometriosis.

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