Nursing Elites

1. 1. To monitor for complications in a patient with type 2 diabetes, which tests will the nurse in the diabetic clinic schedule at least annually (select one that doesn't apply)?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. Chest x-ray
• D. Urine for microalbuminuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chest x-ray. While monitoring for complications in a patient with type 2 diabetes, annual tests such as blood pressure measurement, serum creatinine levels, and urine for microalbuminuria are essential. These tests help in assessing kidney function, cardiovascular health, and early signs of kidney damage, which are common complications of diabetes. A chest x-ray is not routinely scheduled annually to monitor for complications related to type 2 diabetes, making it the least applicable option.

2. A nurse is admitting a new client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take while performing medication reconciliation?

• A. Compare the client's home medications with the provider's prescriptions
• B. Place the client's home medication bottles in a secure location
• C. Call the pharmacy to determine whether the client's medications are available
• D. Verify the client's name on their identification bracelet with the medication administration record

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. During medication reconciliation, the nurse should compare the client's home medications with the provider's prescriptions to ensure accurate and safe administration. This process helps identify any discrepancies or potential interactions. Choice B is incorrect because placing the client's home medication bottles in a secure location is not part of medication reconciliation. Choice C is incorrect as calling the pharmacy to determine medication availability is not related to reconciling medications. Choice D is incorrect as verifying the client's name on their identification bracelet with the medication administration record is part of the identification process, not medication reconciliation.

3. An RN enters a patient�s room to place an indwelling urinary catheter, as ordered by the health-care professional. The client is alert and oriented and tells the RN he wants to leave the hospital now and not receive further treatment. Which of the following actions by the RN would be considered false imprisonment?

• A. The RN tells the client he is not allowed to leave until the physician has released him.
• B. The RN asks the client why he wishes to leave.
• C. The RN asks the client to explain what he understands about his medical diagnosis.
• D. The RN asks the client to sign an against medical advice discharge form.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The RN tells the client he is not allowed to leave until the physician has released him would be considered false imprisonment.

4. Verbal interventions with an agitated patient may be calming. These interventions include:

• A. Holding and reassuring the patient
• B. Encouraging other staff to distract the patient
• C. Remaining calm and keeping an arm's distance
• D. Standing close to the patient while talking

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Remaining calm and keeping an arm's distance. Agitated individuals benefit from minimal verbal and physical stimulation. They respond to their environment based on how nurses interact with them. If an individual feels threatened or cornered, the response will generally be self-protective and reactive. Standing close to the patient (choice D) can be perceived as invasive and may escalate the situation. Holding and reassuring the patient (choice A) may not be effective if the patient perceives it as intrusive. Encouraging other staff to distract the patient (choice B) may introduce unnecessary stimulation. Therefore, the recommended approach is to remain calm and keep a safe distance to provide a non-threatening environment for the agitated patient.

5. What are the final stages of the conflict process?

• A. Antecedent conditions
• B. Perceived and felt conflict
• C. Suppression and resolution
• D. Conflict behavior

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The final stages of the conflict process involve suppression and resolution. After conflicts have been perceived and felt, individuals and parties typically move towards suppressing the conflict (trying to avoid it) and ultimately resolving it. Antecedent conditions refer to factors that exist before conflict arises and do not represent the final stages. Conflict behavior relates to the actions taken during a conflict rather than its final stages.

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