Nursing Elites

1. The system used at the division level and forward comprises six basic modules. Which module is composed of four medical specialists and two vehicles?

• A. Patient holding squad
• B. Surgical squad
• C. Ambulance squad
• D. Area support squad

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Ambulance Squad is the module composed of four medical specialists and two vehicles. This squad is responsible for providing medical care during transportation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not match the description provided in the question. The Patient Holding Squad focuses on a different aspect of patient care, the Surgical Squad is more specialized in surgical procedures, and the Area Support Squad provides a different type of support.

2. A nurse administers albuterol to a child with asthma. For what common side effect should the nurse monitor the child?

• A. Flushing
• B. Dyspnea
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Tachycardia. Albuterol, a bronchodilator used to treat asthma, commonly causes tachycardia as a side effect. Flushing (choice A) is not a typical side effect of albuterol. Dyspnea (choice B) refers to difficulty breathing, which is a symptom of asthma but not a common side effect of albuterol. Hypotension (choice D) is low blood pressure, which is not a common side effect associated with albuterol use.

3. A client with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia is expected to exhibit which clinical finding?

• A. Crying
• B. Self-mutilation
• C. Immobile posturing
• D. Repetitious activities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In catatonic schizophrenia, immobile posturing is a common clinical finding where the patient may maintain a rigid or bizarre posture for prolonged periods. Crying (Choice A) is not typically associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Self-mutilation (Choice B) is more commonly seen in conditions like borderline personality disorder. Repetitious activities (Choice D) are not a hallmark symptom of catatonic schizophrenia.

4. A client who is postpartum and diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia is receiving education from a nurse. Which dietary recommendation should be included in the education plan?

• A. Yogurt and mozzarella
• B. Spinach and beef
• C. Fish and cottage cheese
• D. Turkey slices and milk

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spinach and beef. Spinach is a good source of non-heme iron, while beef provides heme iron, both essential for treating iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt and mozzarella (choice A) are not significant sources of iron. Fish and cottage cheese (choice C) do not provide as much iron as spinach and beef. Turkey slices and milk (choice D) are also not as rich in iron compared to spinach and beef.

5. For a patient with a history of liver disease, which type of diet is most appropriate?

• A. High-protein
• B. High-carbohydrate
• C. Low-protein
• D. Low-fat

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a patient with a history of liver disease, a low-fat diet is most appropriate. Liver disease can impair fat metabolism, leading to fat accumulation in the liver cells and worsening the condition. A low-fat diet helps reduce stress on the liver and manage symptoms associated with liver disease. High-protein diets may not be suitable for individuals with liver disease as they can increase the risk of hepatic encephalopathy. High-carbohydrate diets may lead to insulin resistance and fat accumulation in the liver. While protein restriction may be necessary in some cases, a balanced intake of high-quality protein is essential for maintaining muscle mass and overall health, making a low-protein diet not the most appropriate choice for all patients with liver disease.

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