ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5
1. The nurse is teaching the client diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus about diet. Which diet selection indicates the client understands the teaching?
- A. A submarine sandwich, potato chips, and diet cola
- B. Four (4) slices of a supreme thin-crust pizza and milk
- C. Smoked turkey sandwich, celery sticks, and unsweetened tea
- D. A roast beef sandwich, fried onion rings, and a cola
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a smoked turkey sandwich with celery sticks and unsweetened tea is a healthier option for someone with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Turkey is a lean protein source, celery sticks are low in calories and carbs, and unsweetened tea is a better choice than sugary beverages. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A includes high-carb and high-sugar items like potato chips and diet cola, which are not ideal for diabetes management. Choice B contains a high-carb pizza and milk, which may not be suitable for controlling blood sugar levels. Choice D includes fried onion rings and cola, which are high in unhealthy fats and sugars, making it a poor choice for a diabetic diet.
2. A client has been given instructions about ferrous sulfate. Which statement made by the client would indicate the client needs further education?
- A. "I will take this medication with a full glass of milk."
- B. "I will take the morning dose 1 hour before breakfast."
- C. "I will need to avoid taking this medication with coffee."
- D. "I will take antacids if needed, 2 hours after I take ferrous sulfate."
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ferrous sulfate should not be taken with milk as it can impair iron absorption. Choice B is correct as taking the morning dose 1 hour before breakfast is appropriate. Choice C is correct as coffee can interfere with iron absorption. Choice D is correct as antacids should be taken 2 hours after ferrous sulfate to avoid interference with its absorption.
3. A client with type 1 diabetes is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis and initially treated with intravenous fluids followed by an IV bolus of regular insulin. The nurse anticipates that the practitioner will prescribe a continuous infusion of insulin of:
- A. Novolin L insulin
- B. Novolin R insulin
- C. Novolin N insulin
- D. Novolin U insulin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Novolin R (Regular insulin). Regular insulin is used for continuous infusion to treat diabetic ketoacidosis due to its rapid onset of action. Novolin L (Intermediate-acting insulin) (choice A), Novolin N (Intermediate-acting insulin) (choice C), and Novolin U (Ultra-Long-acting insulin) (choice D) are not suitable for continuous infusion in the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis.
4. The nurse enters a client’s room and the client is demanding release from the hospital. The nurse reviews the client’s record and notes that the client was admitted 2 days ago for treatment of an anxiety disorder, and the admission was voluntary. Which intervention should the nurse initiate first?
- A. Telephone the client’s family and have them persuade the client to stay
- B. Have the client read and sign all the appropriate self-discharge papers
- C. Explain to the client that he cannot leave because he asked for treatment
- D. Notify the client’s healthcare provider of the client’s stated intent to leave the hospital
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to initiate first is to notify the client’s healthcare provider of the client’s intention to leave the hospital. This is important to ensure that the client’s care and safety are appropriately managed. Option A is incorrect as involving the family without proper assessment or intervention could violate the client's autonomy. Option B is incorrect because it does not involve the healthcare provider in the decision-making process. Option C is incorrect as it does not address the client's rights to make decisions about their own care.
5. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task of training soldiers for survival on the battlefield?
- A. Accountability
- B. Personal/professional development
- C. Individual training
- D. Military appearance/physical condition
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Individual training. Individual training involves preparing soldiers for specific tasks like survival on the battlefield. Accountability (choice A) refers to being answerable for one's actions, not directly related to training soldiers. Personal/professional development (choice B) focuses on growth and advancement of individuals, not specific training for battlefield survival. Military appearance/physical condition (choice D) pertains to the physical attributes and presentation of soldiers, not directly related to training them for survival.
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